OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS COMMON HUMAN DISEASE
- ‘Chicken pox‘ is caused by [CBSE PMT 1992]
(a) Adeno virus (b) Varicella virus
(c) SV–40 virus (d) Bacteriophage T-2
- Out of the following one disease is caused by virus
[DPMT 1974; CPMT 1979]
(a) Malaria (b) Influenza
(c) Diphtheria (d) Typhoid
- ‘Dengue fever’ is caused by [CBSE PMT 1993]
(a) Bacteria (b) Plasmodium
(c) Virus (d) Entamoeba histolytica
- ‘Encephalitis‘ in man is a viral disease and is transmitted by
[CMC Vellore 1993]
(a) Anopheles (b) Culex
(c) Aedes (d) Culex and Aedes
- Which of the disease is not transmitted by house flies
[BHU 1985]
(a) Typhoid (b) Yellow fever
(c) Cholera (d) Dysentery
- The disease caused by viruses is [CPMT 1991]
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Small pox
(c) Cholera (d) Typhoid
- Which one of the following is a common disease caused by virus [CPMT 1992, 93, 94]
(a) Yellow fever (b) Typhoid
(c) Syphilis (d) Tetanus
- Which virus, for the first time, was synthesised in the form of non-living crystals [MP PMT 1994]
(a) Bacteriophage (b) Flu virus
(c) Pox virus (d) Tobacco mosaic virus
- The smallest virus one, which causes
(a) Measles (b) Mumps
(c) Rabies (d) Poliomyelitis
- Interferons curb infection of
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi
(c) Cancer (d) None of the above
- Interferons are [AFMC 2002; Pb. PMT 2000; DPMT 2003]
(a) Antiviral proteins (b) Antibacterial proteins
(c) Anticancer proteins (d) None of above
- Common symptoms of measles are
(a) Dew drop-like rashes on skin and high fever
(b) Erupting of small red spots and inflammation of mucous membrane of nose
(c) Lacerating ulcers
(d) None of the above
- The region in the body where the polio virus multiplies is
(a) Nerve cells (b) Intestinal cells
(c) Muscle cells (d) None of these
- The biological agents of disease include
(a) Minerals, vitamins, proteins and carbohydrates
(b) Viruses, bacteria, fungi, helminths and other organisms
(c) Heat, cold, humidity pressure, radiations
(d) All the above
- The pathogen of bubonic plague is transmitted through the bite of [CPMT 1993]
(a) Pediculus humanis (b) Glossina palpalis
(c) Aedes (d) Xenopsylla cheapis
- A kind of allergy is [MP PMT 1995]
(a) Asthma (b) Yellow eyes
(c) Typhoid (d) Mumps
- Mumps is a [KCET 1994]
(a) Viral disease (b) Fungal disease
(c) Bacterial disease (d) Protozoan disease
- A cell–coded protein that is formed in response to infection with most animal viruses is called [CBSE PMT 1994]
(a) Antigen (b) Interferon
(c) Histone (d) Antibody
- Pulse–Polio programme is organised in our country
[AFMC 1996]
(a) To cure polio (b) To eradicate polio
(c) To spread polio (d) None of these
- Which one of the following is a pair of viral disease
[CBSE PMT 1996]
(a) Tetanus and typhoid
(b) Syphillis and AIDS
(c) Whooping cough and sleeping sickness
(d) Measles and rabbies
- In human beings retrovirus is considered as a cause of cancer because [CBSE PMT 1996]
(a) In their genome oncogene is present
(b) Their hereditary material made up of single stranded RNA
(c) They have a gene for reverse transcryptase
(d) In their genome there may be cellulor proto oncogene
- AIDS is a [MP PMT 1997, 2000]
(a) Cancer (b) Virus borne disease
(c) Bacterial disease (d) Deficiency disease
- The carrier of virus causing human yellow fever is
[MP PMT 1998]
(a) Mosquito (b) Bug
(c) Louse (d) Beetle
- Against which of the following does interferon act
[MP PMT 1998]
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Fungus (d) Snake venom
- If a person shows production of interferons in his body, the chances are that he has got an infection of
[CBSE PMT 1997]
(a) Typhoid (b) Measles
(c) Tetanus (d) Malaria
- Which of the following disease is now considered nearly eradicated from India [CBSE PMT 1997]
(a) Plague (b) Kala azar
(c) Small pox (d) Poliomyelitis
- Dengue is transmitted by [AFMC 1997; CPMT 1998]
(a) Culex (b) Male Anopheles
(c) Female Anopheles (d) Tse-tse fly
Diseases caused by bacteria
- ‘Leprosy’ is caused by
[CBSE PMT 1991; MDAT Bihar 1995]
(a) Mycobacterium (b) Salmonella
(c) Monocystis (d) TMV
- ‘Cholera’ is caused by [DPMT 1992]
(a) Virus (b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi (d) Protozoan
- Widal test is used for susceptibility of [BHU 1982]
(a) Malaria (b) Cholera
(c) Yellow fever (d) Typhoid
- ‘Tuberculosis’ is caused by [BHU 1986]
(a) Bacterium (b) Virus
(c) Protozoan (d) Malnutrition
- ‘Diphtheria’ disease is connected with [AFMC 1986]
(a) Lungs (b) Liver
(c) Throat (d) Blood
- Symptoms of diphtheria is [BHU 1986]
(a) Suffocation (b) Hydrophobia
(c) Excessive watering (d) Gum bleeding
- ‘Syphilis‘ is a sexually transmitted disease caused by
[MP PMT 1996]
(a) Treponema pallidum (b) Leptospira
(c) Pasteurella (d) Vibrio
- Vibrio cholerae is a motile bacteria belonging to the group of
[CBSE PMT 1990]
(a) Monotrichous (b) Lophotrichous
(c) Amphitrichous (d) Peritrichous
- The disease due to inflammation of vermifrom appendix of the digestive system is known as [CBSE PMT 1988]
(a) Amoebic dysentery (b) Appendicitis
(c) Intestinal cancer (d) Appendictomy
- ‘Plague’ is transmitted by [CPMT 1984; BHU 1980]
(a) House fly (b) Tse–tse fly
(c) Rat flea (d) Mosquito
- The test for ‘syphilis’ was developed by [AIIMS 1988]
(a) Robert Koch (b) Edward Jenner
(c) Wasserman (d) Louis Pasteur
- Which one of the following sets includes the bacterial disease [DPMT 1986; Pb. PMT 2000]
(a) Cholera, typhoid, mumps
(b) Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
(c) Malaria, mumps, poliomyelitis
(d) Diphtheria, leprosy, plague
- Which is a water–borne disease [MP PMT 1994]
(a) Small pox (b) Malaria
(c) Tuberculosis (d) Cholera
- The causative agent of tuberculosis is
[MP PMT 1994; J&K CET 2002]
(a) Salmonella (b) Pneumococcus
(c) Streptomyces (d) Mycobacterium
- The disease called Vishuchika in Ayurveda is
(a) Cholera (b) Diphtheria
(c) Small pox (d) Chicken pox
- Leprosy is diagnosed by which of the following set of symptoms
(a) Fever, loss of pigmentation
(b) Deformity of fingers, scales, ulcers, loss of pigmentation, wasting of body parts
(c) Frequent watery stools and deformities in fingers and toes
(d) White spots on the skin without any scales or ulcer
- Different species of the bacterium Mycobacterium cause
(a) T.B. and tetanus (b) T.B. and leprosy
(c) Leprosy and cholera (d) Tetanus and plague
- Salmonella typhosa causes
(a) An acute infection of intestine that causes high fever and weakness
(b) Enlargement of spleen and pain in stomach
(c) Rose coloured rashes on the body
(d) All of these
- Leprosy is communicated by
(a) Contact with the diseased parts
(b) Prolonged contact with the diseased parts
(c) Getting exposed to the diseased parts
(d) None of these
- Which one of the following causes plague [CBSE PMT 1995]
(a) Salmonella typhimurum (b) Trichinella spiralis
(c) Yersinia pestis (d) Leishmania donovani
- Yersinia pestis is responsible for [CBSE PMT 1995]
(a) Plague (b) Whooping cough
(c) Leprosy (d) Syphilis
- Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched
[CBSE PMT 1995]
(a) Dangue fever – Arbovirus
(b) Plague – Yersinia pestis
(c) Syphilis – Trichuris trichiura
(d) Sleeping sickness Trypanosoma gambiense
- ‘Black death’ is related with [MP PMT 1995]
(a) Plague (b) Cancer
(c) Tuberculosis (d) Measles
- The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases is [CBSE PMT 1994]
(a) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
(b) Inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
(c) Decreased efficiency of the immune system
(d) The development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics
- Cholera patient is administrated by ’saline drip’ because
[CBSE PMT 1996]
(a) ions are essential for the transport of substances across the membrane
(b) ions are helpful to conserving water in the body
(c) Cl– ions are helpful in the formation HCl for digestion
(d) Cl– ions is significant component of blood plasma
- Biological name of insect (vector) carrying the plague
[MP PMT 1997; BVP 2003]
(a) Xenopcylla cheopis (b) Anopheles mosquito
(c) Bacillus pestis (d) Pediculus humanus
- Which of the following is an STD [MP PMT 1997, 98]
(a) Measles (b) Syphilis
(c) Diphtheria (d) Cancer
- Koch’s postulates are not applicable to [CBSE PMT 1999]
(a) T.B. (b) Leprosy
(c) Diptheria (d) Cholera
- Diphtheria is caused by [CBSE PMT 1997; AFMC 1999]
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Nematodes (d) None of these
- Tetanus disease is caused by [CPMT 2004]
(a) Virus (b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi (d) Mycoplasma
- Cholera, leprosy and diptheria are [Pb. PMT 2004]
(a) Bacterial diseases (b) Viral diseases
(c) Fungal diseases (d) Functional diseases
- Match the following bacteria with the diseases and choose the correct option [Kerala 2004]
Column I |
Column II | ||
A. | Treponema pallidum | 1. | Plaque |
B. | Yersinia pestis | 2. | Anthrax |
C. |
Bscillus anthrasis |
3. | Syphilis |
D. | Vibrio | 4. | Cholera |
(a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Diseases caused by protozoa
- The malignant tertian malaria is caused by
[DPMT 1985; AIIMS 2000]
(a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Plasmodium falciparum
(c) Plasmodium ovale (d) Plasmodium malariae
- Malaria is transmitted by ’Anopheles’. This was discovered by [DPMT 1985]
(a) A. Laveran (b) Ronald Ross
(c) Pasteur (d) Huxley
- ‘Trypanosomiasis’ is transmitted by or Carrier of Trypanosoma in man is
[DPMT 1992; AFMC 1983; CPMT 1973;
MP PMT 1996, 98]
(a) House fly (b) May fly
(c) Tse–tse fly (d) Fruit fly
- Entamoeba gingivalis is found in buccal cavity of man. It causes [CPMT 1973, 75]
(a) Pyorrhoea (b) Amoebic dysentery
(c) Branchitis (d) No disease
- Quinine an important drug for treatment of malaria, is extracted from [CPMT 1977]
(a) Calyx of Cinnamon (b) Brak of Cinchona
(c) Red ants (d) Brak of tulsi
- The disease caused by Entamoeba gingivalis is transmitted by [DPMT 1985]
(a) Flies
(b) Kissing
(c) Using the same bowl
(d) Kissing and using the same bowl
- ‘Glossina palpalis‘ is a vector for [CBSE PMT 1992]
(a) Dengue (b) Filariasis
(c) Gambian fever (d) Plague
- All the diseases are spread by housefly except
[CBSE PMT 1992]
(a) Leprosy (b) Dysentery
(c) Typhoid (d) Sleeping sickness
- Malarial parasites could be best obtained from a patient
(a) An hour before rise of temperature
(b) When temperature rises with rigor
(c) When temperature comes to normal
(d) Few hours after the temperature reaches to normal
- ‘Amoebiasis‘ (amoebic dysentery) is caused by
[CPMT 1977, 78, 95; MP PMT 1993, 95;
CBSE PMT 1992; RPMT 1995]
(a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Entamoeba gingivalis
(c) Entamoeba histolytica (d) Trypanosoma gambiense
- Vector for ‘kala azar’ disease is
[CPMT 1971, 86; MP PMT 2002]
(a) Sand fly (b) House fly
(c) Louse (d) Bed bug
- Which of the following set is of vector host [CPMT 1977]
(a) Sand fly, deer fly, tse–tse fly, house fly
(b) Frog, lizard, snack, rabbit
(c) Leishmania, sand fly, Trypanosoma, tse–tse fly
(d) Sand fly, frog, house fly
- Tse-tse fly is a vector for sleeping sickness which transmits the infective stage of which of the following parasite
[CPMT 1976, 81]
(a) Leishmania donavani (b) Plasmodium falciparum
(c) Trypanosoma gambiense (d) Wuchereria bancrofti
- ‘Quartan fever’ is caused by
[Bihar 1995; RPMT 1995; MP PMT 2001]
(a) P. vivax (b) P. malariae
(c) P. falciparum (d) P. ovale
- Plasmodium vivax causes
(a) Benign tertian malaria (b) Malignant fever
(c) Quartan fever (d) Normal malaria
- Time between successive hyperthermic condition in quatern fever is
(a) 12 hours (b) 24 hours
(c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
- Schuffner’s dots are related to [JIPMER 1993]
(a) R.B.C. of man
(b) Leucocytes of frog
(c) Epithelium of stomach of mosquito
(d) Entamoeba histolytica
- ‘Black water fever‘ is a very serious complication of
[CMC Vellore 1993; RPMT 1995]
(a) P. ovale (b) P. falciparum
(c) P. malariae (d) P. vivax
- The secondary host of malaria parasite is [MP PMT 1994]
(a) Male culex (b) Male anopheles
(c) Female culex (d) Female anopheles
- Enteritis, a widespread disease in India and its infection occurs by [MP PMT 1994]
(a) Viruses
(b) Mosquito bite
(c) Ingesting cysts with food and drinks
(d) None of the above
- Kala azar is caused and transmitted respectively by
[MP PMT 1994, 2003; CPMT 2002;
AIIMS 2003; AFMC 2001]
(a) Leishmania and Phlebatomus
(b) Trypanosoma and sand fly
(c) Leishmania and tse–tse fly
(d) Trypanosoma and Glossina palpalis
- African sleeping sickness or Gambiense fever is caused by
[DPMT 1984; AFMC 1985; MP PMT 2002;
AFMC 2003; KCET 2000]
(a) Entamoeba (b) Trypanosoma
(c) Leishmania (d) Trichomonas
- The vector for causing sleeping sickness in man is
[MP PMT 1993]
(a) House fly (b) Mosquito
(c) Tse–tse fly (d) Butterfly
- Which of the following diseases is endemic
(a) Common cold (b) Amoebiasis
(c) Hepatitis (d) Influenza
- On which day, we celebrate ’Malaria Day’
(a) 5th June (b) 15th August
(c) 20th August (d) 20th September
- Incubation period in case of malarial parasite is
[CPMT 1998]
(a) 10–11 days (b) 20 days
(c) 5 days (d) 2 days
- Symptoms of shigellosis, a diarrhoeal disease are
(a) Frequent passage of stools with blood and mucus
(b) Severe cough and sputum
(c) Loss of weight and appetite
(d) Severe abdominal pain and vomiting
- Mapacrine and pelludrine are used to cure which disease
[CPMT 1995]
(a) Plague (b) Malaria
(c) T.B. (d) Pneumonia
- Which of the following does not cause a disease in human beings [RPMT 1995]
(a) Entamoeba coli (b) Plasmodium ovale
(c) Entamoeba histolytica (d) Entamoeba gingivalis
- Which of the following causes malaria [MDAT Bihar 1995]
(a) Plasmodium (b) Hook worm
(c) Ascaris (d) Filaria worm
- Which of the following is the infective stage of the malarial parasite (Plasmodium)
[CPMT 1974, 80; AFMC 1985;
MP PMT 1993, 2001; Manipal 1995]
(a) Gametocyte (b) Merozoite
(c) Sporozoite (d) Trophozoite
- Which one of the following is found in the mouth of human beings [MP PMT 1995]
(a) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Entamoeba coli
(c) Amoeba proteus (d) Entamoeba gingivalis
- Entamoeba gingivalis lives in the [JIPMER 1994]
(a) Intestine (b) Colon
(c) Pus pockets of pyorrhoea (d) Intestines and colon
- One of the following is an intracellular parasite of man
[KCET 1994]
(a) Ancylostoma (b) Plasmodium
(c) Mosquito (d) Entamoeba
- Infection of Entamoeba histolytica can be checked by
[CPMT 1996]
(a) Bathing before taking meals
(b) Covering the food articles
(c) Washing hands before taking meals
(d) Washing the vagetables before their con_sumption
- Who discovered malarial parasite [CPMT 1996]
(a) Ronald Ross (b) Leveran
(c) Grassi (d) Lansici
- Which of the following is a parasite protozoan
(a) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Paramecium cardatum
(c) Euglena viridis (d) Ascaris lumbricoides
- Schizont is a stage in the life history of malaria parasite occurring in
(a) RBCs
(b) Stomach of Anopheles
(c) Salivary glands of Anopheles
(d) Blood of Anopheles
- Which of the following has only one host
(a) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Plasmodium vivax
(c) Taenia solium (d) Trypanosoma gambiense
- Malaria is caused by
(a) Ascaris (b) Foul air
(c) Plasmodium (d) Mosquito
- Which disease is caused by a flagellate
(a) Sleeping sickness (b) Dysentery
(c) Whooping cough (d) Jaundice
- Oral cancer may be caused by
(a) Smoking (b) Running
(c) Swimming (d) Eating betal
- Plasmodium in man is innoculated by [MP PMT 1997]
(a) Anopheles male and female
(b) Anopheles male
(c) Anopheles female
(d) Culex female
- ‘Malaria’ a common disease world wide is caused by a
[MP PMT 1997]
(a) Bacterium (b) Virion
(c) Protozoa (d) Helminths
- Malaria parasite completes its life-cycle in [MP PMT 1997]
(a) One host (b) Two host
(c) Three host (d) Reservoir host
- Metabolic waste responsible for malaria fever is called
[MP PMT 1997]
(a) Haemozoin (b) Haematin
(c) Melanin (d) Heparin
- Haemozoin is a toxic substance formed in case of malaria. It is produced by [MP PMT 1999; RPMT 1999]
(a) Globin protein of RBC (b) Colour pigment of RBC
(c) Dead WBC (d) Cryptozoites
- Chloroquine is used for treatment of [CPMT 1998]
(a) Malaria (b) Tetanus
(c) Cancer (d) AIDS
- Malaria is spread by [CPMT 1998, 2002]
(a) Male Culex (b) Female Culex
(c) Male Anopheles (d) Female Anopheles
- The fish used for control of malaria is [CPMT 1998]
(a) Gambusia (b) Rohu
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of these
- The protozoan found in colon of human is [CPMT 1998]
(a) P. vivax (b) A. egypti
(c) E. coli (d) All of these
- A person sufferring from malaria feel fever when
[CPMT 1998]
(a) Exoerythrocytic cycle is completed
(b) Signet ring stage is formed
(c) When RBC generally ruptured and haemozoin granules are released
(d) All the above
- Match the incorrect pair [AFMC 1997]
(a) Xenopsylla – Plague
(b) Pediculus – Typhoid
(c) Culex – Malaria
(d) Stegomyria – Yellow fever
- ‘Amoebiasis’ (Amoebic dysentery) is caused by
[CPMT 1977. 78, 95; MP PMT 1993, 95;
CBSE PMT 1992; RPMT 1995; BVP 2004]
(a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Entamoeba gingivalis
(c) Entamoeba histolytica (d) Trypanosoma gambiense
- Kala – azar disease is causes by [MP PMT 2004]
(a) Trypanosoma gambiense (b) Wuchereria bancrofti
(c) Tania solium (d) Leishmania denovani
- Cerebral malaria is caused by [MP PMT 2004]
(a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Plasmodium ovale
(c) Plasmodium falciparum (d) Plasmodium malariae
- Which of the following is not correctly matched
[CBSE PMT 2004]
(a) Aedes aegypti – Yellow fever
(b) Anopheles culifacies – Leismaniasis
(c) Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness
(d) Culex pipiens – Filariasis
- Fever in malaria is due to [CPMT 2004]
(a) Entry of sporozoites into blood capillaries
(b) Entry of merozoites into liver cells
(c) Release of merozoites from red blood cells
(d) Entry of cryptomerozoites into red blood cells
Diseases caused by helminthes
- Which of the following is a helminth disease
[AFMC 1982, 83, 86]
(a) Filaria (b) Filariasis
(c) Polio (d) Diphtheria
- Chenopodium oil is used in [AFMC 1985]
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Typhoid
(c) Ascariasis (d) Small pox
- ‘Enterobiasis’ disease is caused by [CBSE PMT 1988]
(a) Filaria worm (b) Hook worm
(c) Pin worm (d) Round worm
- Which of the following insects transmits relapsing fever
[DPMT 1984]
(a) Drosophila (b) Apis
(c) Cimex (d) Gryllus
- Louse is ectoparasite of [CPMT 1977]
(a) Fish (b) Snack
(c) Man (d) Whale
- Parasite which is vector host also is [CPMT 1971]
(a) House fly (b) Fasciola
(c) Ascaris (d) Bug
- Cause of ’cysticercosis’ is
(a) Semi-cooked meat of pig
(b) Contaminated water and food
(c) Bacteria
(d) Virus
- Filarial larva can be collected from man’s [CBSE PMT 1993]
(a) Smears of intestinal contents
(b) Peripheral blood at midnight
(c) Smears of spleen
(d) Biopsy of liver
- Which disease is caused by a nematod [AIIMS 1993]
(a) Leprosy (b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Amoebiasis (d) Filariasis
- Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by
[BHU 1985; MP PMT 1996]
(a) Imperfectly cooked pork
(b) Tse–tse fly
(c) Mosquito bite
(d) Contaminated water and vegetables
- Filaria germ is a kind of [JIPMER 1994]
(a) Bacteria (b) Helminthes
(c) Mosquito (d) Protozoa
- The accumulation of excess fluid in tissue space is called
[CPMT 1991; DPMT 1986]
(a) Hodgkin’s disease (b) Parkinson’s disease
(c) Oedema (d) Cirrhosis
- Which of the following is a matching pair of the vector and the disease
(a) Culex –Filariasis (b) Housefly – Yellow fever
(c) Body louse – Typhoid (d) Sandfly – Plague
- Disease caused by the biting of Culex mosquito is
[CPMT 1995]
(a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever
(c) Yellow fever (d) Pneumonia
- Filaria is transmitted by
[BHU 1995; JIPMER 1994; MP PMT 1999]
(a) Male anopheles (b) Male culex
(c) Female anopheles (d) Female culex
- The study of worms which cause parasitic infestations in man is called [Manipal 1995]
(a) Helminthology (b) Herpetology
(c) Ichthyology (d) Malacology
- Elephantiasis (Filariasis) in man is caused by
[CPMT 1980; Manipal 1995]
(a) Ancylostoma duodenale (b) Ascaris lumbricoides
(c) Dracunculus medinensis (d) Wuchereria bancrofti
- Which one spreads filaria [MP PMT 1995]
(a) House fly (b) Bed bug
(c) Mosquito (d) Flea
- Which of the following pairs is correct [CPMT 1998]
(a) House fly–Yellow fever
(b) Bed bug – Kala azar
(c) Sand fly – Amoebic dysentry
(d) Culex – Filariasis
- Filariasis is caused by [CPMT 1998; Pb. PMT 1999]
(a) Wuchereria (b) Amoeba
(c) P. vivax (d) E. coli
- Wuchereria bancrofti is transmitted by [CPMT 1998]
(a) Sand fly (b) Tse-tse fly
(c) Anopheles mosquito (d) Culex
- Rocky mountain fever is caused by [AFMC 1997]
(a) Virus (b) Fungi
(c) Algae (d) Tick
Diabetes millitus and Cardiovascular diseases
- Which of the following is related to heart disease
(a) Cushing’s syndrome (b) Edward’s syndrome
(c) Turner’s syndrome (d) Pataut’s syndrome
- Which one of the following can help in the diagnosis of genetical basis of a disorder [BHU 2003]
(a) ELISA (b) ABO Blood group
(c) PCR (d) NMR
- Which of the following diseases is not related to circulatory system [AFMC 1986]
(a) Hypertension (b) Coronary thrombosis
(c) Diabetes mellitus (d) Diphtheria
- The disease characterised by extreme muscular weakness and brownish pigmentation of buccal cavity and skin is
[CPMT 1991]
(a) Cushing’s syndrome (b) Addison’s disease
(c) Grave’s disease (d) Myxoedema
- Which is not a gene linked disease
(a) Haemophilia (b) Deltonism
(c) Myxoedema (d) Alkaptoneuria
- The presence of RBC in urine is known as
(a) Hematuria (b) Urolithiasis
(c) Nephritis (d) Protonuria
- Cause of ‘Erythroblastosis foetalis’ may be [BHU 1977]
(a) Adjoining of RBC (b) Bleeding
(c) Diapedesis (d) Haemophilia
- A non-infectious unnatural and unusual reaction of a person to any substance or condition for which he is hypersensitive is termed as [AIIMS 1993]
(a) Infection (b) Immunity
(c) Allergy (d) Toxin
- Congenital diseases are those which [CMC Vellore 1993]
(a) Occur during life time
(b) Are deficiency diseases
(c) Are present from time of birth
(d) Are spread from man to man
- The disease as a result of prolonged clotting time is due to the lack of plasma thromboplastin component (PTC) necessary to the formation of thromboplastin, is
[CBSE PMT 1988]
(a) Christmas disease (b) Hypoprothrombincamia
(c) Haemophilia (d) Stuart disease
- Examples of congenital diseases are [BHU 1985]
(a) Alkaptonuria, albinism
(b) Albinism, sickle cell anaemia
(c) Haemophilia
(d) All the above
- Sickle cell anaemia is due to [BHU 1988]
(a) Deficiency of vitamin B
(b) Deficiency of iron in the blood
(c) A genetically determined defect of haemoglobin synthesis
(d) Increase in the number of leucocytes in the blood
- The disease Erythroblastosis foetalis in human embryo is caused due to [MP PMT 1988]
(a) Disadjustment of blood groups
(b) Disadjustment of Rh factor
(c) Both of these
(d) None of the these
- Haemophilia is [CBSE PMT 1989; BHU 1990]
(a) A type of mosquito lacking haemocoel
(b) The royal disease
(c) Faulty blood clotting
(d) (b) and (c) both
- Hereditary disease condition in which the blood fails to coagulate [NCERT 1982]
(a) Sickle cell anaemia (b) Leukemia
(c) Haemophilia (d) Alkaptonuria
- ‘Christiaan Barnard’ is known for
(a) Discovery of polio vaccine
(b) First surgical transplantation of human heart
(c) First test tube baby birth
(d) Synthesis of gene
- A denoid is the disease in which
(a) Glandular tissue at the back of nose enlarges
(b) Spleen enlarges
(c) Thyroid enlarges
(d) Tonsils enlarges
- ‘Thala test’ is done for the confirmation of
(a) Malaria (b) Cholera
(c) Colour blindness (d) Thalassaemia
- Which of the following diseases is known as auto immune thyroiditis/thyroid’s suicide
[RPMT 1995; MP PMT 2001; BHU 2002]
(a) Addison’s disease (b) Cretinism
(c) Hashimoto disease (d) Goitre
- Diabetes mellitus is due to lack of
(a) Insulin in circulating blood
(b) Starch in food
(c) Trypsin in pancreatic juice
(d) ADH reaching the kidney
- The ECG method is needed to detect abnormalities in heart for
(a) Coronary thrombosis (b) Heart attack
(c) Heart block (d) All the above
- Treatment with ‘Alloxan’ destroys [AIIMS 1998]
(a) STH cells
(b) Beta–cells of islets of Langerhans
(c) Cells of Sertoli
(d) Cells of Leydig
- In sickle–cell anaemia, which of the following amino acids is substituted [AFMC 1997]
(a) Glutamic acid by valine in chain
(b) Valine by glutamic acid in chain
(c) Glutamic acid by valine in chain
(d) Valine by glutamic acid in chain
- Neurons of people suffering from diabetes insipidus do not secrete [Orissa jee 2004]
(a) Enzyme (b) Steroid
(c) Fatty acid (d) ADH
- Diabetes mellitus takes place only when [DPMT 2004]
(a) a-cells of pancreas are in excess
(b) b-cells of pancreas are in excess
(c) a-cells of pancreas are in hypo
(d) b-cells of pancreas are in hypo
Arthrites and Cancer
- ‘Blood cancer’ is also known as
[DPMT 1992; CBSE PMT 1995]
(a) Leucopenia (b) Leucoderma
(c) Leucocytosis (d) Leukemia
- The process of spreading the cancerous cells to distant site is known as
(a) Hyperstasis (b) Metastasis
(c) Parastasis (d) Parasitesis
- The nucleus of cancerous cells becomes
(a) Degenerated (b) Hypertrophied
(c) Unchanged (d) Abnormally large
- Ribosomes of cancerous cells fuse together to form
(a) Ribosome complex (b) Polyribosomes
(c) Agglutinised (d) Degenerative ribosomes
- If a muscle fails to give stimulation action and there is much ingestion of lactic acid, the condition is termed as
(a) Paralysis (b) Tonus
(c) Fatigue (d) Tetanus
- Harmful ultraviolet radiations from sun cause
(a) Breast cancer (b) Liver cancer
(c) Mouth cancer (d) Skin cancer
- Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they [CMC Vellore 1993]
(a) Are undergoing rapid division
(b) Are starved by nutrition
(c) Are different in structure
(d) None of the above
- Cancer is related to [DPMT 1984; MP PMT 1996]
(a) Uncontrolled growth of tissues
(b) Non-malignant tumor
(c) Controlled division of tissues
(d) None of these
- Arthritis is the disease of
(a) Inflammation of abdomen
(b) Inflammation of joints
(c) Inflammation of liver
(d) Inflammation of neck
- The most common cancer in men in India is
(a) Lung cancer (b) Throat cancer
(c) Mouth–throat cancer (d) None of these
- Gouts, a painful disorder of joints is due to
(a) Damage caused to ligaments
(b) Injury to tendon
(c) Inflammation of synovial membrane
(d) Deposition of uric acid at joints
- Which is not cancer [MP PMT 1995]
(a) Leukaemia (b) Glaucoma
(c) Carcinoma (d) Sarcoma
- A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed ’sarcoma ‘ if the disorder is in [CBSE PMT 1994]
(a) Immune system (b) Epithelial cells
(c) Fibroblasts (d) Circulatory system
- In which stage of cancer does metastitia occur
(a) III stage (b) II stage
(c) I stage (d) IV stage
- Chemicals, which can induce cancer are called
(a) Mutagenic agents and produce benign tumour
(b) Carcinogens and produce non-malignant tumour
(c) Mutagenic agents and do not produce malignant tumour
(d) Carcinogens and produce malignant tumour
- Cell division or mitosis is a normal process in a living cell, but sudden and abnormal mitosis in an organ will frequently result in a
(a) Zygote (b) Gastrula
(c) New organ (d) Cancer
- Blood cancer is excess production of leucocytes. It is
(a) Haemorrhage (b) Haemolysis
(c) Leukemia (d) Thrombosis
- The spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is termed as
[MP PMT 1997]
(a) Mutation (b) Malignancy
(c) Metastasis (d) Benign tumours
- Which of the following is the cancerous state of blood
[MP PMT 1998]
(a) Chloremia (b) Leukemia
(c) Uremia (d) Proteinemia
- Which disease is caused by activation of oncogenes
[MP PMT 1999]
(a) Cholera (b) Cancer
(c) T.B. (d) Viral flu
- Spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is termed as
[MP PMT 1999]
(a) Metastasis (b) Oncogenes
(c) Proto-oncogenes (d) Malignant neoplasm
- Which type of cancer is found in lymph nodes and spleen
[CBSE PMT 1999; MP PMT 2003]
(a) Carchroma (b) Sarcoma
(c) Leukaemia (d) Lymphoma
- Which of the following will be curable in next two decades
[CBSE PMT 1997]
(a) Cancer (b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Tuberculosis (d) None of these
- Oncogenes were discovered by [AIEEE 2004]
(a) S.B. Prussiner
(b) F.P. Rous
(c) A. Fleming
(d) J.M. Bishop and H.E. Vermus
- Cancer cells are characterized by [MP PMT 2004]
(a) Uncontrolled growth
(b) Invasion of local tissue
(c) Spreading to other body parts
(d) All the above
- The genes concerned with the production of cancer are called [BVP 2004]
(a) Cancer genes (b) Carcino genes
(c) Carcinomas (d) Oncogenes
- Benign tumour is the one which [MH-CET 2004]
(a) Shows metastasis
(b) Differentiated and capsulated
(c) Undifferentiated and noncapsulated
(d) Differentiated and noncapsulated
- Degenerative diseases are those which develop due to
[Kerala CET 2002]
(a) Malfunction of hormones
(b) Degeneration of tissues
(c) Malfunction of certain body organs
(d) Degeneration of the infected organs
- ‘Pathogens’ are
(a) Substances produced against any disease causative
(b) Chemical substances produced by the host cells to kill the parasite animal
(c) Disease spreading factors
(d) Cells which kill the parasites
- Sickle cell aneamia is more common in South Africa. This is due to [BHU 1986, 88]
(a) Change in beta–chain of haemoglobin
(b) More population of house flies
(c) Change in alpha–chain of haemoglobin
(d) Change in gamma–chain of haemoglobin
- ‘Bacillary dysentery’ is caused by [AIIMS 1988]
(a) Salmonella (b) Shigella
(c) Proteus (d) Entamoeba
- ‘Haemophilia’ disease is caused due to lack of [BHU 1988]
(a) ADH (b) STH
(c) AHF (d) ACTH
- Which test confirms the scarlet fever [AIIMS 1988]
(a) Dick test (b) ECG
(c) UTI test (d) Widal test
- A condition of failure of function of kidney to form urine is [Delhi PMT 1984]
(a) Creatinine (b) Hematuria
(c) Anuria (d) Alkaptoneuria
- ‘Asthama’ is due to [DPMT 1985]
(a) Infection of trachea
(b) Infection of lungs
(c) Bleeding into pleural cavity
(d) Spasm in bronchial muscles
- Symptoms of oedema is [DPMT 1990]
(a) Swelling of body part especially the legs
(b) Pain in the chest
(c) Cold
(d) Pain in the right leg
- Cushing’s syndrome which is characterised by wasting of limb muscles and accumulation of fat in the trunk region is due to hypersecretion of [CPMT 1991]
(a) Corticosteroid (b) Adrenalin
(c) Progesterone (d) Adrenocorticotropin
- ADH is secreted from the posterior lobe of pituitary and its deficiency leads to
(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Conn’s syndrome
(c) Addison’s disease (d) Diabetes insipidus
- In sickle cell anaemia, the death is caused when the lethal genes are present in [AIIMS 1992]
(a) Heterozygous condition
(b) Homozygous dominant condition
(c) Homozygous recessive condition
(d) Co–dominant condition
- If the IIIrd nerve is damaged, it will lead to
[CBSE PMT 1990]
(a) Loss of accomodation
(b) Dilation of pupil
(c) Loss of occular movements
(d) All of these
- Grave’s disease is caused by the hypersecretion of thyroid hormone and is associated with the
(a) Enlargement of the thyroid gland
(b) Increased BMR and increased nervous activity
(c) Exophthalamia
(d) All of the above
- Albino condition is found in which human race
[CPMT 1977]
(a) All races (b) White race
(c) Black race (d) Mongols
- Filaria, malaria, dengue fever, sleeping sickness, yellow fever are transmitted by [DPMT 1986]
(a) Mosquitoes (b) House flies
(c) Insects (d) Bacteria
- Which of the following organisms is known to form abscesses in human liver, lungs, brain etc. [AIIMS 1993]
(a) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Monocystis
(c) Plasmodium (d) Fasciola hepatica
- Black lung disease is common among
(a) Coal miners
(b) Refinery workers
(c) Farmers
(d) Petrochemical industry workers
- X- rays are used in [BHU 2003]
(a) ECG (b) EEG
(c) CT –Scan (d) Endoscopy
- ‘Itaria–itaria’ disease is caused by
(a) Cadmium (b) Manganese
(c) Mercury (d) Zinc
- Which disease in children is caused by intensive use of nitrate fertiliser [MP PMT 1996]
(a) Jaundice (b) Methemoglobinemia
(c) Mumps (d) Septicemia
- Cynosis refers to [AIIMS 1988]
(a) Bluish colouration of the body
(b) Reddish colouration of the body
(c) Pale colouration of the body
(d) Goose flesh of the body
- Sprain is caused due to excessive pulling of
(a) Ligaments (b) Muscles
(c) Nerves (d) Tendons
- Dropsy means
(a) Accumulation of the watery fluid in any part of the body
(b) Accumulation of toxins in the body parts
(c) Enlargement of kidney
(d) Defective muscles of the eye
- Infantile amaurotic idiocy (Tay–Sachs disease) is
(a) The result of severe protein deficiency in diet and damages the muscle development in growing children
(b) An inherited disorder in which the spinal cord and brain are severely damaged within a few months of birth leading to paralysis and mental retardation, and finally the infant’s death in 3 or 4 years
(c) A genetic abnormality which appears at the age of 25–30 years and damages the bones
(d) A chromosomal disorder in young children
- A boy happens to put his foot on a rusted nail and the doctor gives him an injection. Most likely he has given
(a) OPV (b) BCG
(c) ATS (d) Tetanospasmin
- Epidemiology deals with the study of
(a) Mode of transmission of diseases
(b) Disease causing organisms
(c) Development of resistance against diseases
(d) Skin ailments
- Which one of the following diseases is due to an allergic reaction [CBSE PMT 1995]
(a) Enteric fever (b) Hay fever
(c) Skin cancer (d) Goitre
- Kwashiorkar disease develops due to [MP PMT 1995]
(a) Malnutrition (b) Over-eating
(c) Catalysis (d) Mutation
- Swollen face, mental dullness, dry skin and loss of appetite is the characteristics of
(a) Goitre (b) Acromeagly
(c) Tetany (d) Myxoedema
- Match the names of disease listed under column I with meanings given under column II, choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the columns. [KCET 2004]
Column I(Name of disease) |
Column II(Meanings) |
||
A. | Jaundice | p | Allergic inflammation of nose |
B. | Stenosis | q | Loss of motor functions |
C. | Rhinitis | r | Heart valve defect |
D. | Paralysis | s | Increase in bile pigments in the blood |
t | Septal defect of heart |
(a) A = q; B = t; C = r; D = p
(b) A = s; B= p; C = q; D = r
(c) A = s; B = r; C = p; D = q
(d) A = s; B = t; C = p; D = q
- Dreaming occurs in [Orrisa JEE 2004]
(a) a-sleep (b) REM sleep
(c) Deep sleep (d) Slow wave sleep
- Infectious or communicable diseases
(a) Cannot be communicated from one man to another
(b) Can develop infection from one man to another
(c) Can spread without any intermediate host
(d) Can spread with some intermediate host
- ‘Meningitis’ is a disease of
(a) Respiratory system (b) Digestive system
(c) Nervous system (d) Excretory system
- A disease caused by eating fish contaminated by industrial waste containing mercury compounds is known as
[CBSE PMT 1994; Kerela CET 2003]
(a) Bright’s disease (b) Minamata disease
(c) Hashimoto disease (d) Osteosclerosis
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below :
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false
(e) If the assertion is false but reason is true
- Assertion : Amoebic dysentry can be diagnosed by stool test of the patient.
Reason : Stool of the patient has tetranucleated cysts.
- Assertion : Polio is known to cause paralysis and crippling in large number of children every year.
Reason : Government has started a Polio Eradication Programme.
- Assertion : Tetanus can be diagnosed by Mantoux test.
Reason : In Mantoux test, the dye gives colour to tetanospasmin.
- Assertion : Haemophilia is a congenital disease.
Reason : Haemophilia is caused by a gene mutation during one’s own life span.
- Assertion : ORS is given to the patients suffering from cholera.
Reason : ORS contains water, minerals and sugar to avoid dehydration.
- Assertion : Cattle suffering from Rinderpest disease should be isolated.
Reason : Rinderpest is caused by bacterium.
- Assertion : Bordeaux mixture is able to eradicate many fungal diseases.
Reason : It is a fungicide which has proved to be effective for control of disease.
- Assertion : Pork should be properly cooked to avoid Taenia
Reason : Pork of pig contains Hexacanth and cysticerci larvae.
- Assertion : Rabies is also called hydrophobia.
Reason : In Rabies, the dog fears from water.
- Assertion : Dye workers generally suffer from bladder cancer.
Reason : These are more exposed to a carcinogenic chemical benzpyrene.
- Assertion : Epstein – Barr virus is an oncovirus.
Reason : It stimulates the growth of cancer.
- Assertion : Metastatic cancers are more serious.
Reason : These spread from one organ to other body organs and there is increased interference with metabolic functioning.
- Assertion : Lung cancer is more common in industrial workers.
Reason : Industrial smoke contains certain carcinogenic pollutants.
- Assertion : Cancer is generally associated with a tumour.
Reason : Cancerous cells undergo uncontrolled growth and division.
- Assertion : Adenoma is a sarcoma.
Reason : Adenoma is located in the adipose tissue.
- Assertion : UV – rays are carcinogenic in nature.
Reason : UV – rays rupture DNA strands and induce mutations to cause cancers.
- Assertion : Tobacco smoking is the main causes of lung cancer.
Reason : Tobacco smoke has a carcinogen called nicotine.
- Assertion : Intake of potato chips and french fries may induce cancer development.
Reason : On heating, their carbohydrate changes into a carcinogenic chemical called acrylamide.
- Assertion : Surgery has been found highly effective in lung cancer.
Reason : Resection is possible after the thoracotomy.
Diseases caused by viruses
1 | a | 2 | c | 3 | c | 4 | a | 5 | b |
6 | b | 7 | b | 8 | b | 9 | d | 10 | a |
11 | b | 12 | a | 13 | b | 14 | b | 15 | c |
16 | b | 17 | b | 18 | b | 19 | a | 20 | d |
21 | d | 22 | d | 23 | a | 24 | b | 25 | b |
26 | b | 27 | d | 28 | a | 29 | a | 30 | b |
31 | b | 32 | d | 33 | d | 34 | b | 35 | a |
36 | b | 37 | b | 38 | c | 39 | a |
Diseases caused by bacteria
1 | a | 2 | b | 3 | d | 4 | a | 5 | c |
6 | a | 7 | a | 8 | a | 9 | b | 10 | c |
11 | c | 12 | d | 13 | d | 14 | d | 15 | a |
16 | b | 17 | b | 18 | d | 19 | b | 20 | c |
21 | a | 22 | c | 23 | a | 24 | d | 25 | a |
26 | a | 27 | b | 28 | b | 29 | a | 30 | b |
31 | a | 32 | b |
[
Diseases caused by protozoa
1 | b | 2 | b | 3 | c | 4 | d | 5 | b |
6 | d | 7 | c | 8 | d | 9 | d | 10 | c |
11 | a | 12 | a | 13 | c | 14 | b | 15 | a |
16 | d | 17 | a | 18 | b | 19 | d | 20 | c |
21 | a | 22 | b | 23 | c | 24 | b | 25 | c |
26 | a | 27 | a | 28 | b | 29 | a | 30 | a |
31 | c | 32 | d | 33 | c | 34 | b | 35 | c |
36 | b | 37 | a | 38 | a | 39 | a | 40 | c |
41 | a | 42 | d | 43 | c | 44 | c | 45 | b |
46 | a | 47 | b | 48 | a | 49 | d | 50 | a |
51 | c | 52 | c | 53 | c | 54 | c | 55 | d |
56 | c | 57 | b | 58 | c |
Diseases caused by helminthes
1 | b | 2 | c | 3 | c | 4 | c | 5 | c |
6 | d | 7 | a | 8 | b | 9 | d | 10 | d |
11 | b | 12 | c | 13 | a | 14 | a | 15 | d |
16 | a | 17 | d | 18 | c | 19 | d | 20 | a |
21 | d | 22 | d |
Diabetes millitus and Cardiovascular diseases
1 | d | 2 | c | 3 | d | 4 | b | 5 | c |
6 | a | 7 | a | 8 | c | 9 | c | 10 | a |
11 | d | 12 | c | 13 | b | 14 | d | 15 | c |
16 | b | 17 | a | 18 | d | 19 | c | 20 | a |
21 | d | 22 | b | 23 | a | 24 | d | 25 | d |
Arthrites and Cancer
1 | d | 2 | b | 3 | d | 4 | b | 5 | c |
6 | d | 7 | a | 8 | a | 9 | b | 10 | a |
11 | d | 12 | b | 13 | c | 14 | b | 15 | d |
16 | d | 17 | c | 18 | c | 19 | b | 20 | b |
21 | a | 22 | c | 23 | a | 24 | d | 25 | d |
26 | d | 27 | b |
Critical Thinking Questions
1 | c | 2 | c | 3 | a | 4 | b | 5 | c |
6 | a | 7 | c | 8 | d | 9 | a | 10 | a |
11 | d | 12 | b | 13 | c | 14 | d | 15 | a |
16 | c | 17 | a | 18 | a | 19 | c | 20 | a |
21 | b | 22 | a | 23 | a | 24 | a | 25 | b |
26 | c | 27 | a | 28 | b | 29 | a | 30 | d |
31 | c | 32 | b | 33 | b | 34 | c | 35 | b |
Assertion and Reason
1 | a | 2 | b | 3 | d | 4 | c | 5 | a |
6 | b | 7 | a | 8 | c | 9 | c | 10 | c |
11 | a | 12 | a | 13 | a | 14 | a | 15 | d |
16 | d | 17 | c | 18 | a | 19 | d |
Diseases caused by viruses
- (a) Hydrophobia or rabies is an acute, usually fatal infectious viral disease of the central nervous system of mammals. Human infection results from the bite of a rabid animal (bat, dogs, etc.).
- (d) Tetanus and typhoid are bacterial diseases whereas dysentery is caused by a protozoan.
- (a) Paraplegia means paralysis of the lower part of the body including the legs.
- (b) Yellow fever, a viral disease is transmitted by mosquitoes of various species of Stegomyia genera.
- (d) Interferons curb the infection of viruses.
- (d) Bubonic plague which affects rats and men is caused by Pasteurella pestis and is transmitted by insect vector flea xenopsylla (Xenopsylla cheapis).
- (b) Measles is one of the most prevalent and serious disease of children. It is caused by virus named rubeola virus. Due to infection of virus, body produces antitoxin against viral infection, which is called interferon.
- (c) Small pox is an acute highly communicable disease. It is caused by virus named variola virus. Now it is nearly eradicated from India.
- (a) Dengue is commonly called `bone breaking fever’ which is caused by a virus transmitted by Culex fatigans and species of Aedes mosquito.
Diseases caused by bacteria
- (a) Leprosy is a communicable bacterial disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae.
- (b) Cholera is caused by a bacteria Vibrio cholerae.
- (d) Widal’s test is the test for the presence of agglutinins to O and H antigens of Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi in the serum of patients with suspected Salmonella infection.
- (a) Tuberculosis is a bacterial disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
- (c) Diphtheria is an acute infectious disease caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae and its toxin affecting the membranes of the nose, throat or larynx.
- (c) Syphillis a sexually transmitted disease (STD) is caused by Treponema pallidum.
- (a) Diphtheria is a serious disease caused by bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. It commonly attacks mucous membrane of nose, throat and tonsils. The symptoms include high fever, sore throat, difficulty in breathing due to chocking.
Diseases caused by protozoa
- (b) Malignant tertian malaria is caused by Plasmodium falciparum. It is also called as aestivo–autumnal or pernicious malaria or black water fever. The fever is often fatal to the patient as it affects the brain.
- (b) Ronald Ross a British scientist in 1898, showed that malarial parasite is carried by the `anopheles’ mosquito. He was awarded Nobel prize for the same in 1902.
- (b) Quinine is an alkaloid obtained from Cinchona bark. It suppresses the asexual erythrocytic forms of malarial parasites and has a slight effect on the gametocytes of Plasmodium vivax and P. malariae.
- (c) Gambian fever or Gambian sleeping sickness is caused by a protozoan Trypanosoma gambience and is transmitted by Glossina palpalis (tse–tse fly).
- (d) Sleeping sickness is spread by tse–tse fly.
- (c) Amoebiasis or amoebic dysentery is caused by the ingestion of quadrinucleate cyst of Entamoeba histolytica along with contaminated food and drinks.
- (a) Kala azar is caused by a protozoan Leishmania donovani and it transmitted by sand fly Phlebotomus.
- (b) Plasmodium malariae is the causitive organism of quartan malaria which is characterized by the recurrence of fever every fourth day as the duration of its erythrocytic cycle is 72 hours.
- (a) Tertian, benign tertian or vivax malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax and is characterized by recurrence of fever every third day i.e. after 48 hours. This type of malaria does not result in death of the patient and incidence of this disease is worldwide mainly in temperate regions.
- (a) Schuffner’s dots or granules are small red eosinophillic granules which appear in the cytoplasm of host corpuscles during malarial infection.
- (b) Black water fever is caused by Plasmodium falciparum. It is also called as aestivo-autumnal or malignant tertian malaria or pernicious malaria. The fever is often fatal to the patient as it affects the brain.
- (a) Entamoeba coli a protozoan found within the lumen of colon of human beings is non–pathogenic but occasionally leads to GIT disturbances.
- (c) Entamoeba gingivalis lives in the buccal cavity of man. It causes ulcers in gums; which are invaded by pus forming bacteria. Entamoeba gingivalis feeds on bacteria also.
- (c) By washing the hands, we can avoid the ingestion of cysts. Cysts are responsible for infection.
Diseases caused by helminthes
- (a) Culex fatigans is a biological vector for Wuchereria bancrofti.
- (a) Filariasis or elephantiasis is caused by a nematode Wuchereria bancrofti which is transmitted through the bite of Culex fatigans mosquito. In this disease, there is huge enlargement of the diseased (affected) organ.
- (d) Rocky mountain spotted fever is an acute rickettsial disease characterised by high fever, chills, pain in muscles and joints. It is caused by an infected tick.
Diabetes millitus and Cardiovascular diseases
- (d) The patient of Patau’s syndrome often suffers from disorders of heart.
- (c) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a method for amplifying a specific region of DNA molecule and thus, can help in the diagnosis of genetical basis of disorder
- (d) Diphtheria is related to respiratory system.
- (b) Dr. Christiaan Barnard a South African surgeon performed first human heart transplant operation in 1967 in Capetown, South Africa. His patient survived for 18 days.
Arthrites and Cancer
- (a) The most widely distributed cancer is carcinoma of lung in males of India.
- (b) Glaucoma is not cancer but an abnormality of eye in which there is an increase in fluid (intra-occular) pressure which leads to permanent damage of optic nerve fibres and consequently irreversible loss of eye–sight.
- (d) The cancer cells multiply by abnormal rapid and uncontrolled mitosis.
- (c) Leukemia is abnormal increase in number of leucocytes which are all immature.
Critical Thinking Questions
- (c) Any disease producing agent or micro-organism is termed pathogen.
- (a) Sickle cell aneamia is caused by a single gene mutation in the sixth place of chain of haemoglobin where glutamic acid is replaced by valine.
- (a) Due to deposition of carbon particles.
- (c) CT scan is a radiographic technique where distinct images of internal structure are obtained by employing beams of X- rays.
- (b) Tay–Sachs disease is the most common gangliosidosis, occuring almost exclusively among north–east European Jews and specifically characterized by infantile onset (3–6 months), doll–like facies, cherry red macular spot (90 + percent of the infants) early blindness, hyperacusis, macrocephaly, siezures and hypotonia; the children die between 2 and 5 years of age. It is caused by the deficiency of hexosaminidase A enzyme in tissue.
- (c) A.T.S. in the abbreviation for antitetanic serum.
- (a) Epidemiology is the study of the relationships of various factors determining the frequency and distribution of diseases in the human community.
- (a) Kwashiorkar is a nutritional deficiency disease due to low protein diet.
- (c) ‘Meningitis’ word is composed of `meninges‘ and `itis‘ which in greek language means membranes covering brain and spinal cord and inflammation respectively. It means inflammation of meninges.
Assertion and Reason
- (a) Amoebic infection is direct and oral. The tetranucleate cysts are ingested with contaminated food water. The pathogen secretes a cytolysin enzyme which damages intestinal mucosa leading to its ulceration acute diarrhoea, blood and mucus in the stools so we can diagnosed by stool test of the patient.
- (b) Polio is misnomerly called in fantile paralysis pulse – polio programme was started in December 1995 in India. In this programme babies in the age group of 0 – 5 year are vaccinated with oral polio vaccine. It was aimed to eradicate this crippling disease by the end of 20th century.
- (d) Tetanus caused by the bacillus Clostridium tetani. Montex test is performed to determine susceptibility of tuberculosis.
- (a) ORS is oral dehydration solution used for correcting dehydration caused by diarrhoea in all age groups. One liter of ORS contains 1.5 gm glucose, 3.5 gm NaCl, 2.9 gm KCl and 2.9 gm trisodium. Citrate and ORS given to the patients who is suffering from cholera.
- (a) Fungal disease like mycosis and thrush can be controlled by using Bordaeux mixture (having copper sulphate).
- (c) Human infection is direct and oral. It occurs by eating raw or under – cooked measly pork (Pig muscle with cysticercus larvae of taenia). Infection in vegetarians occurs through improperly washed vegetable. So proper cooking of pork and properly washed vegetable to avoid taenia infection.
- (c) Rabies is a disease caused by a rabies virus. It other name of rabies is hydrophobia. The patient fear from water, then he paralysed and death.
- (c) Bladder cancer is caused by certain dyes. It is most commonly reported in the worker who work in industries such as dyeing and printing where these are exposed to aniline.
- (a) Oncoviruses are cancer – causing viruses and may be DNA or RNA virus e.g., Epstein – Barr – Virus, Herpes simplex type 2 virus etc. This shows that the development of cancerous tumour is associated with certain genes.
- (a) Metastasis is the process of transference of cancerous cells from the site of origin to distant parts of the body. Such tumours are very serious and cause the death of the patient due to increasing interference with the metabolic functions of the body and killing of more and more normal cells.
- (a) Cancer is characterized by uncontrolled growth and division of certain body tissues. So forming a tumour. Cancer show uncontrolled mitotic divisions of cells causing unorganized growth.
- (d) Sarcoma are malignant growths of the connective tissue. Adenoma is cancer of gland adenoma is located in the gland.
- (d) Ionising radiation’s like X-rays, gamma – rays and particulate radiations from radio active substance are known to rupture DNA stands and induce mutations to cause cancers.
- (c) Cigarette and cigar tobacco smoking causes lip, mouth, and lung cancers due to presence of a carcinogenic agent, benzpyrene and N – nitrosodimethylene and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons. Nicotine is the substance that causes addiction to tobacco.
- (a) Recently Dr. Leif Busk of sweden reported that when high carbohydrate food like potato chips and french fries are heated then a carcinogenic chemical called acrylamide, us formed.
(445)