Physical Standards

Physical fitness is one of the most important prerequisites for joining the Air Force. Irrespective of the branch you are applying for, you must fulfil some basic physical standards. Listed below are some guidelines that identify the general physical requirements that are common for all candidates.

• You must be in good physical and mental health and free from any disease/ disability, which is likely to interfere with efficient performance of duties. There should be no evidence of weak constitution or bodily defects.
• The height and weight standards for men and women differ. Click to view the appropriate standards for each.
  • Men
  • Women
• Your chest should be well developed. The minimum range of expansion after full inspiration should be 5 cm.
• There should be no disease of bones and joints of the body.
• You should be free of any past history of mental breakdown or fits.
• Your hearing should be normal without any evidence of present or past disease of the ear, nose and throat.
• There should be no sign of functional or organic disease of the heart and blood vessels. Your blood pressure should also be normal.
• The muscles of the abdomen should be well developed without any enlargement of the liver or spleen. Any evidence of disease of internal organs of the abdomen can be a cause for rejection.
• An un-operated hernia can make you unfit for selection. If operated, this should have been done at least six months prior to the present examination and healing should be complete without any potential for recurrence.
• There should be no hydrocele, varicocele or piles. If operated for hydrocele and/or varicocele, this should have been done at least six months prior to the present examination and healing should be complete without any recurrence.
• Urine examination will be done and any abnormality, if detected, can be a cause for rejection.
• Any disease of the skin, which is likely to cause disability or disfigurement, will also be a cause for rejection.
• Vision will be tested. You must have good binocular vision. In case you have undergone or are detected to have undergone Radial Keratotomy, or any other procedure to improve the visual acuity, you will be permanently rejected.
• You should have sufficient number of natural and sound teeth. A minimum of 14 dental points will be acceptable. When 32 teeth are present, the total dental points are 22. You should not be suffering from severe pyorrhoea.
• The following are conditions pertaining to women that will entail rejection for all Air Force Duties:
  • Acute or chronic pelvic infection
  • Severe menorrhagia
  • Severe dysmenorrhea
  • Complete prolapse of uterus
  • Pregnancy/ Amenorrhea
  • Any other gynaecological condition, if so considered by the specialist
    

    Medical Standards for the Flying Branch (Additional)

    If you are applying for the Flying Branch, you must remember that apart from the general physical standards, there are some standards that are specifically applicable to you. Listed below are the physical requirements applicable to both men and women applying to the Flying Branch.

    1. Anthropometric Measurements – The acceptable anthropometric measurements for both Men and Women are as follows:

    • Minimum Height – 162.5 cms
    • Leg Length – Minimum- 99 cms.Maximum- 120 cms
    • Thigh Length – Maximum- 64 cms
    • Sitting Height -Minimum- 81.5 cms. Maximum- 96 cms

    2.  X-ray of cervical and Lumbosacral spine will be carried out.

    3.  The following conditions detected radiologically will disqualify a candidate for all Air Force Duties:-

    • Granulomatous Disease of spine
    • Arthritis / Spondylosis

    • Rheumatoid arthritis and allied disorders
    • Ankylosing Spondylitis
    • Osteoarthrosis, Spondylosis and Degenerative joint disease.
    • Non-articular rheumatism ( e.g lesions of the rotator cuff, tennis elbow, recurrent lumbago etc).
    • Misc disorders including SLE, Polymyositis and Vasculitis.
    • Spondylolisthesis / Spondylolysis.
    • Compression fracture of vertebra
    • Scheuerman’s Disease (Adolescent Kyphosis)
    • Loss of cervical lordosis when associated with clinically restricted movements of cervical spine.
    • Unilateral / bilateral cervical ribs with demonstrable neurological or circulatory deficit.

    • Any other abnormality as so considered by the specialist.

    In addition, for Flying Branches the under mentioned rules will also apply:-

    1. Spinal Anomalies acceptable for Flying Duties

    • Bilateral complete sacralisation of LV5 and bilateral complete lumbarisation of SV1.
    • Spina bifida in sacrum and in LV5, if completely sacralised.

    • Complete block (fused) vertebrae in cervical and dorsal spine at a single level.

    2. Spinal Condition not acceptable for Flying Duties

    • Scoliosis more than 15 by Cobb’s method

    • Degenerative disc disease.

    • Presence of Schmorl’s node at more than one level.

    • Atlanto occipital and atlanto-axial anomalies.

    • Hemi Vertebra and / or incomplete block (fused) vertebra at more than one level in cervical or dorsal spine.

    • Unilateral sacralisation or lumbarisation (complete or incomplete) at all levels and bilateral in complete sacralisation or lumbrarisation.

    3.  Vision

    • 6/6 in one eye and 6/9 in other, correctable to 6/6 only for hypermetropia. ) Manifest Hypermetropia must not exceed +2.0D Sph, Myopia – Nil and Astigmatism +0.75 D Cyl (within +2.0 D – Max)
    •  Near Vision N-5 each eye.

    •  Color Vision CP-1(ML T).
    • LASIK Surgery for correction of vision is admissible in Transport and Helicopter streams of Short Service Commission (Flying Branch) If the following condition are fulfilled at the time of Air Force medical examination:-

    •  LASIK Surgery should not have been carried out before the age of 20 years.

    o  The axial length of the eye should not be more than 25.5 mm as measured by IOL master.
    o  At least twelve months should have lapsed post uncomplicate stable LASIK. No history or evidence of any complication.

    o  The post LASIK corneal thickness as measured by a corneal pachymeter should not be less than 450 microns.

    o  Individuals with high refractive errors (>6D) prior to LASIK are to be excluded.

    o  Candidates must not suffer from colour or night blindness.

    4. Occular Muscle Balance – Phorias with the Maddox Rod Test must not exceed:
    At 6 meters

    •        Exophoria 6 prism Diopters
    •        Esophoria 6 prism Diopters
    •        Hyperphoria 1 prism Diopters
    •        Hypophoria 1 prism Diopters

    At 33 cm

    •     Exophoria 16 prism Diopters
    •     Esophoria 6 prism Diopters
    •     Hyperphoria 1 prism Diopters
    •     Hypophoria 1 prism Diopters

    It may be noted that the Air Force Medical Board is the final authority while deciding the medical fitness for joining the Indian Air Force

    Selection Process

    STEP 1 – RESPOND TO ADVERTISEMENT FOLLOWED BY WRITTEN TEST

    1. For NDA and CDSE

    • The advertisement for NDA is released twice a year in the months of May and December and for CDSE in the months of June and October by UPSC.
    • Duly filled applications are to be sent to UPSC as given in advt.
    • The written tests are conducted by UPSC only. For details visit www.upsc.gov.in

    2. AFCAT – Air Force Common Admission Test.

    • For all entries other than NDA and CDSE and for all branches, candidates have to undergo the AFCAT.
    • The test is conducted twice a year in February and September
    • Advertisements inviting applications for AFCAT are out in June and December. Candidates are to apply as per the advertisement.
    • The test is conducted all across India by the Indian Air Force

    3. 3. NCC entry

    • Air Sqn NCC Senior division ‘C’ certificate holders are to apply through DG NCC/ respective NCC Air Squadron
    • They would then appear for AFCAT

    STEP 2 – SSB (Services Selection Board) TESTINGIf you have successfully cleared Step 1, you will receive a Call letter to report to any one of the Air Force Selection Boards located at Dehradun, Varanasi, Gandhinagar and Mysore. At the Air Force Selection Board (AFSB), you undergo following tests in order to ascertain your suitability and gauge your potential as an Officer in the Indian Air Force.

    1. 1. Stage I Testing

    •  Officer Intelligence rating Test
    •  Picture perception and Discussion Test

    Stage I is a screening test. Those who qualify Stage-I are eligible to undergo Stage II testing. Stage I disqualified candidates are routed back after announcement of results

    2. Stage II Testing
       All Stage I qualified candidates undergo following tests as part of Stage II testing during next three to four days

    •  Psychological Tests are written tests that are conducted by a Psychologist.
    • Group Tests are interactive indoor and outdoor activities which are a combination of mental and physical work.
    •  Interview involves a personal conversation with an Interviewing Officer.

    These tests will be explained to you in detail before they are conducted at the Selection Board.

    The following is the schedule for OLQ Tests:

    	FLYING	TECHNICAL	GROUND DUTY
    Day 1	Phase I testing – Officers Intelligence Rating Test & Picture Perception and Discussion test
    Day 2	Group tests	Group tests	Group tests
    Day 3	Group tests	Group tests	Group tests
    Day 4	Interview	Interview	Interview
    Day 5	Conference	Conference	Conference
    Day 6	PABT*

    * Pilot Aptitude Battery Test (PABT) is a unique test. It is aimed at assessing a candidate’s aptitude to be trained as a pilot. PABT is being used as an independent selection device to induct potential officers into Flying Branch of Indian Air Force. PABT comprises three tests viz Instrument Battery Test (INSB), Sensory Motor Apparatus Test (SMA) and Control Velocity Test (CVT). Instrument Battery Test (INSB) is a paper pencil test and other two are machine tests. The Instruments Battery Test (INSB) comprises two parts. This test assesses assimilation of the briefing and the ability of an individual to read and interpret the dials of an instrument panel of an aircraft. The candidates who score the minimum laid down criteria are subjected to the machine test. The machine test includes Sensory Motor Apparatus Test (SMA) and Control Velocity Test (CVT). These tests measure the psychomotor co-ordination skill of the individual. These tests are conducted on a single day and administered only once in life time.

    At the Conference held on the last day, all the Assessors i.e. the Psychologist, Ground Testing Officer and the Interviewing Officer, discuss your personality and decide on whether to recommend you or not. Those recommended by the AFSBs will be required to fill up certain documents at the Boards and subsequently move to the next step.

    STEP 3 – CONDUCT OF MEDICAL EXAMINATIONS If you are recommended by the Selection Board, you will be sent for the medical examination either at Air Force Central Medical Establishment (AFCME), New Delhi or Institute of Aviation Medicine, Bengaluru.

    STEP 4 – PREPARING ALL INDIA MERIT LIST An All India Merit List is compiled on the basis of your performance in the written test and AFSB interview, subject to being medically fit. Based on the vacancies available in various branches / sub branches, joining instructions are issued to join one of the Training establishments.

    Guidelines For Candidates

    AFCAT- FAQs

    General Instructions For AFA

    General Instructions For AFSB

    Previous AFCAT Question Papers

    Syllabus and Schemes of AFCAT

    Military Aptitude Test

    EKT Sample Question Paper

    EKT Syllabus
    
                   AIR FORCE COMMON ADMISSION TEST (AFCAT)

    FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS

    CANDIDATES SHOULD READ THE ADVERTISEMENT AND THE FAQ’S BEFORE FILLING UP THE FORM. DO NOT BE IN A HURRY TO PRESS THE SUBMIT BUTTON. CANDIDATES ARE ADVISED TO CHECK AND RE-CHECK THE CORRECTNESS OF ALL DETAILS THEY ARE FILLING-IN TO AVOID COMPLICATIONS AT A LATER STAGE. DATA ONCE SUBMITTED WILL NOT BE MODIFIED DURING COMPLETE CYCLE OF RECRUITMENT
    

    These FAQ’S are guidelines only. Refer the advertisement for complete details.

    Some common queries are addressed below. However, candidates are advised to read the complete advertisement properly as published in Employment News or as given on the website careerairforce.nic.in. The advertisement is quite comprehensive and most of the queries will be clear if the advertisement is read properly.

    Candidates are also advised to fill up the online form properly. Clear instructions have been given on the website regarding filling up of the form. Please check all columns properly before submitting the form. Check and re-check the spelling of your name, father’s name, date of birth, postal address, email address etc.

    Write your Date of Birth and Gender correctly. These details in the form cannot be changed subsequently. Your eligibility for various courses would depend on your filling up all relevant details correctly. Please check and re-check before pressing the ‘Submit’ button.

    Write your email address correctly while registering online as the password will be sent to your email address. If incorrect email address is mentioned, the password may not be delivered, or will be delivered to the wrong address. Candidates may note this point specifically.

    1. What is AFCAT?

    Ans. AFCAT stands for Air Force Common Admission Test. This test is conducted by the Indian Air Force for     selection of officers in all branches of the IAF (except medical and dental) viz. Flying Branch (Short Service    Commission only), Technical Branch (Permanent Commission and Short Service Commission) and Ground Duty    Branch (Permanent Commission and Short Service Commission). AFCAT is conducted twice a year (in the month of   February and August). The advertisement for the same is published in the months of December and June   respectively.

     2.Is AFCAT the same as the UPSC exam for NDA / CDSE entry?

    Ans. No. AFCAT and UPSC exams are different. UPSC conducts exam for entry into NDA (after Class XII, for males  only). Entry through CDSE (after graduation, for males only in IAF) is also conducted by UPSC. The UPSC exam for  NDA / CDSE is primarily for Flying Branch (Permanent Commission). For further details you may refer to the UPSC  website.

    3. What are the eligibility criteria for AFCAT?

    Ans. The eligibility criteria with respect to age limit, educational qualifications etc. for AFCAT are spelt out in the      advertisement published in the Employment News as well as the same is displayed on the website    www.careerairforce.nic.in . Minimum qualification required is graduation.

    4. Are women candidates eligible to apply for AFCAT?
    Ans.Yes, women candidates may also apply for AFCAT. For details regarding age limit, qualifications, eligibility for       various branches etc. please refer the advertisement published in the Employment News as well as the same               displayed on the website www.careerairforce.nic.in. Minimum qualification required is graduation. 

     5.How do I apply for the AFCAT?
    Ans. AFCAT applications now have to be made online only. The earlier scheme allowing candidates to apply offline    (by post) has been discontinued. Candidates are to apply online through websitewww.careerairforce.nic.in using a       valid and current email address only.

    6. Do I need to send any documents / self-addressed envelope to AFCAT Cell for Admit Card etc.?

    Ans. No. There is no requirement of sending anything by post to AFCAT Cell. Applications are to be made online  only.

     7. What is the scheme of exam for AFCAT?

    Ans. Duration of AFCAT is two hours .It consists of 100 questions. It is an objective test and the scheme of syllabus  contains General Awareness, Verbal Ability in English, Numerical Ability, Reasoning & Military Aptitude. A sample  paper and old question papers are available on the website careerairforce.nic.in (in the sub link ‘Selection’). 

    8. Whether qualifying in AFCAT will make me an officer in the IAF?

    Ans. AFCAT is only one of the steps involved in the entire selection process for getting selected as an officer in the  IAF. On clearing the AFCAT, shortlisted candidates will be called for SSB (Services Selection Board) Testing. If  recommended by the SSB, candidates will undergo medical fitness tests conducted by Air Force medical authorities.  Subsequently, subject to medical fitness, a merit list will be prepared depending on the number of vacancies  available in various branches of the IAF.

     9.I have completed my Class XIIth exam. Am I eligible for AFCAT?

    Ans. No. Minimum qualification required for AFCAT is graduation / post-graduation (depending on the branch you are  applying for). There is also a minimum requirement of marks in graduation / post-graduation. For full details, you are  requested to go through the advertisement published in the Employment News. The advertisement is also displayed  on the website careerairforce.nic.in.

    10.    Where should I register for the AFCAT online?

    Ans. You have to register for AFCAT on the website www.careerairforce.nic.in Please note that the registration is being done through this website only. Do not register for AFCAT on any other website.

    11.     Is there any fee / registration charges etc. for AFCAT?

    Ans. No. There is no fee / registration charges of any kind for applying / appearing in the AFCAT. Please note that no money is charged or taken at any stage during the entire selection process. If anyone demands money / bribe, you may approach Air Force authorities. However, no TA or any other allowance is paid for appearing in the AFCAT. Candidates have to make their own arrangements for reaching the exam centre, accommodation etc.

     

    12.I have registered online on the website www.careerairforce.nic.in for AFCAT. However, I have not received any password. What should I do?

    Ans. The password is sent to the email address through which you have registered. The password is usually sent within 24 hours of the registration. If you do not receive your password even after 48 hours you may also use “Forgot Password Option” to receive a new pass word. However, candidates must note that they have to enter their email address correctly. Email address should be a valid one and in use. Past experience has shown that many candidates during the registration process wrote incorrect email address and password was therefore not delivered. Be careful regarding the spellings etc. when you fill in the email address. Even one letter / alphabet mis-spelt in the email address will lead to entry of wrong email address.

    13.I am meeting the age criteria as per the advertisement. However when I am filling up the form online, it is showing error indicating I am not eligible.

    Ans. Please read the advertisement carefully. The age given in the advertisement, say between 19 to 23 years for example, is as on 01 January 2014. Are you meeting the relevant age as on that day. Recheck and then fill the form. The advertisement in fact also indicates born between dates. So refer the advertisement, ascertain your eligibility, and then fill the form.

    14.I am not a science graduate. Am I eligible for the flying branch?

    Ans. Graduate (minimum three years course) in any discipline from a recognised university who have attained minimum 60% marks in aggregate (all papers put together) and have passed Maths and Physics at the 10+2 level are eligible to apply. Please refer the advertisement / website for detailed notification regarding eligibility criteria.

    15.I have a Commercial Pilot Licence issued by DGCA (India). Am I eligible to apply in the flying branch?

    Ans. You may apply if you meet age criteria and other educational / medical criteria. Please note there is certain age relaxation for CPL holders. However, one needs to meet the educational qualification criteria. Also note that the age relaxation is for holders of CPL issued by DGCA (India) only. CPL issued by any other body / country may not qualify you for age relaxation etc. Also note that even the Student Pilot Licence (SPL) issued by DGCA (India) does not qualify you for age relaxation.

    17.I have an engineering degree, yet I am not eligible for technical branch. How is that?

    Ans. For technical branch, you also need to fulfil the criteria as given in Para 4 of the advertisement. You need to have a minimum of eight subjects from the individual list of AE (L) or AE (M) branch subjects. To amplify, one should have studied eight subjects from at least one list exclusively i.e. to say one cannot have five subjects from the list of AE(L) and remaining three from AE(M) list. All eight subjects should be from one list only. If that is not the case, then you may not be eligible for technical branch. You may however be eligible for flying / ground duty branch (if meeting age criteria and other medical standards etc.). Please read advertisement.

    18.I have a degree from a foreign university. Am I eligible?

    Ans. If the degree is recognised by UGC / AICTE / Ministry of HRD / DEC, you may be eligible for AFCAT.

    19.I have filled all columns in page ___, yet I am unable to proceed to the next page during filling up of the form.

    Ans. You would have entered certain information which may not be in consonance with the eligibility criteria. The most common mistakes are regarding the age criteria (check the date of birth and ascertain if you are eligible). Also if applying on the basis of graduation do you have 60% aggregate (all papers put together). If applying on postgraduate basis, do you have 50% aggregate marks? Please check the eligibility criteria from the advertisement and then fill the form. Ascertain that you meet all criteria before you apply.

    20.My university has awarded CGPA. How do I fill up the marks column?

    Ans In case of candidates being awarded Grades/CGPA instead of marks, the conversion of Grades/CGPA to percentage of marks would be based on the procedure certified by the university/ institution from where they have obtained the Bachelor’s degree. In case the university/ institution does not have any scheme for converting CGPA into equivalent marks, the equivalence would be established by dividing the candidate’s CGPA by the maximum possible CGPA and multiplying the result with 100.

    21.Do I write the marks in decimal form or only in two digits?

    Ans. Ignore the decimal. Write complete figures only. Please note that you need to have 60% aggregate marks in all papers put together if applying on the basis of graduation. 59.9% is NOT equal to 60%. You need to have 60% aggregate and above if applying on the basis of graduation. Same is the case if applying on the basis of postgraduation, marks have to be 50% or above.

    22.I am interested in applying for flying branch. I have filled up all the columns correctly to my knowledge. Yet, it is showing that I am not eligible for flying branch.

    Ans. Please check if you have filled all columns properly. Check the age and educational qualification criteria firstly. Also check if you have filled the PABT column correctly. Also check if you have written correctly regarding Physics and Maths in Class XII.

    23.What are the cut-off marks for passing in AFCAT?

    Ans. There is no standard cut-off. It varies depending on various factors like the number of vacancies etc.

    24.I am having problems uploading my photograph, thumb impression and signature?

    Ans. You need to upload passport size photograph (size 10 to 250 KB) in jpg / jpeg format. Uploading of Thumb impression and signature is not mandatory.

    25.During the registration process, I have written my name (or) date of birth incorrectly. What should I do?

    Ans. Such a mistake at the outset should not occur. You are advised to fill the basic data regarding yourself correctly. Data once submitted cannot be changed.

    26.I wear spectacles. Am I eligible for flying branch?

    Ans. Medical criteria are well laid down. Medical fitness is ascertained only after qualifying the written part of AFCAT and after being recommended by the SSB. Primafacie, candidates wearing spectacles having short / long-sightedness may not be eligible for flying branch. However, medical fitness is determined by the medical authorities. Please read the advertisement where basic details regarding medical standards have been mentioned.

    27.How do I know which centre would I be allotted for the AFCAT?

    Ans. You are to fill the application form and clearly indicate your choices in order of priority for seat preferences. AFCAT will endeavour to provide your choice, but you may appreciate that the entire process is automated and seats are allotted on the number of availability in every centre.

    28.I am married. Am I eligible to apply?

    Ans. Candidates below 25 years of age must be unmarried. The term unmarried excludes widower and divorcee even though without encumbrances. Marriage is not permitted during training. Married candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply but during training period they will neither be provided married accommodation nor can they live out with family.

    29.I am presently in my final year of my Engineering / Degree Course. Am I eligible to apply for AFCAT?

    Ans. You may apply subject to meeting the requisite criteria of age and education qualification. If you are in the final year, you should not have any present backlog and should have a minimum of 60% marks in aggregate in all papers put together up to the last semester / year for which results have been declared.

    30.I have submitted my application form, but now I want to change my exam centre. Is it possible?

    Ans. Choices once given are treated as final.

    31.I have given flying branch as my first choice, technical as second. Can I change my choice now after submitting the form?

    Ans. Choices once given are treated as final.

    32.I am a serving airman. How do I apply for AFCAT?

    Ans. Serving airmen are to apply online at par with other candidates. In addition, airmen are to apply in service format as per AFO 39 / 2006 through service channel.

     33. Can one register once again for AFCAT if there was some mistake in filling up the application form?

    Ans. Candidates are advised to check and re-check their application form for correctness before submitting the application. In case of mistake you may register afresh and intimate AFCAT Cell for cancellation of the first.

    ONUS OF MEETING THE ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA RESTS WITH THE APPLICANT. MERELY QUALIFYING IN THE WRITTEN PART OF AFCAT / SSB TESTING DOES NOT CONSTITUTE FULFILMENT OF ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS.
    
    PLEASE READ THE ADVERTISEMENT CAREFULLY.

    General Instructions For AFA And AFSB

    1. Candidates will be asked to report for training on a specific date and time, which will be specified in the Joining Instructions. Reporting late without proper authority is not permissible. In case you report early, arrangements for stay will have to be done personally until you report to the reception centre as per laid down instructions.
    2. A Reception Centre will be established at Secunderabad Railway Station Exit Gate from 0900 hrs on the day of arrival. Your move from railway station to Air Force Academy will be arranged by the reception centre. The movement Control Officer (MCO) at the railway station can be contacted for guidance.
    3. During the period of the training, all cadets will be provided with suitable accommodation.
    4. Also, free messing will be arranged in the Flight Cadets Mess for the training period.
    5. Free medical services will be also provided during the training period. Please note that you will not be entitled to claim any compensation for any injury sustained while under training. If you have any injury or have fallen sick after your Air Force Medical Examination, you are required to intimate AFA on arrival.
    6. You would have to submit a medical certificate completed by you and a medical practitioner and furnish the same on arrival at AFA. The performa will be sent with your Joining Instructions.
    7. During training no leave will be granted except on medical and compassionate grounds
    8. To equip you with correct kitting requirements during training, as also your service career post commissioning, certain items (including uniform) will be issued to you on arrival at AFA.
    9. Candidates need to be in possession of certain items like towels, slippers, mosquito net, white handkerchiefs, dressing gown, hangers, electric iron etc, on arrival at AFA.
    10. Candidates must carry at least Rs 10,000/- as pocket allowance to meet initial kitting requirements
    11. Incase a candidate wishes to withdrawfrom training for any reason whatsoever or refuse to accept commission, if offered, he/she will be required to pay the entire cost of training to the Government . An undertaking to this effect will have to be given/ signed for the same.
    12. An indifferent attitude towards training might amount to deliberate failure and termination of training and you may be required to pay the cost of training. U/T Flying officers/Flight cadets considered indisciplined and suspended on these grounds.

     

     GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: REPORTING AND TESTING AT

    AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARDS (AFSB)

    1. Reporting. The Call Letter along with your Admit Card would be the authority for you to report to the nominated Air Force Selection Board (AFSB) for Testing. The same is to be handed over to the Board on arrival. You must report for the interview on the date and time as specified in the Call Letter. Late comers, on any account (inclusive of late running of trains) will not be admitted for tests. A representative in Air Force uniform will meet you at the Railway Station and escort you to the AFSB.

    2.  Boarding and Lodging. Free boarding and lodging will be provided during your stay at the Board during the period of testing. Those candidates who arrive before the date and time indicated in the Call Letter will have to make their own arrangements. Parents/ guardians accompanying the candidates will have to make their own arrangements.

    3.  Selection Procedure. The testing schedule is in two phases and normally for a period of five to six days depending upon contingencies and will be as follows:-

    Schedule	Activity
    Day 1	Phase 1- Officer Intelligence Rating and Picture Perception & Discussion Tests. Psychological Tests for Candidates who are Recommended in Phase 1
    Day 2	Group Tests/ Interviews
    Day 3	Group Tests/ Interviews
    Day 4	Group Tests/ Interviews
    Day 5	Group Tests/ Interviews, Board Conference
    Day 6	Pilot Aptitude Battery Test for Recommended candidates eligible for Flying Branch

    4. Documents. You are required to bring the following relevant documents, which will be checked and returned after verification:-

    (a)  Original Matriculation/ Secondary School Certificate and Mark sheets issued by CBSE/ ICSE/ State Board. No other certificate will be accepted for verification of Date of Birth.

    (b) Original Marks Sheet & Certificate of 10+2 (issued by the relevant Board).

    (c) Original/ Provisional Graduation Degree/ Post Graduation Degree Certificates and Mark Sheet of each year/ semester issued by University – only for verification of educational qualifications which make you eligible for the course. Provisional Certificate issued by college Principal is not acceptable. However, Provisional Degree Certificate issued by the University is acceptable.

    (d) In case of final year/ semester students, a Certificate from the College Principal, clearly mentioning the following aspects annotated with proper stamp and seal of the Institution is required:-

    (i) Name of the College.

    (ii) Name of the University.

    (iii) Discipline in which Graduation/ Post Graduation obtained.

    (iv) Aggregate Percentage.

    (v) Likely Date of Declaration of Final Result (in DD/MM/YYYY Format).

    (e) Two attested photocopies of each of the above mentioned certificates.

    (f) Original NCC Certificate (if applicable).

    (g) NOC from employers for candidates working in Central/ State Governments or Public Sector Undertakings.

    (h) Original valid Commercial Pilots’ License, issued by DGCA, if applicable.

    (j) Inbound Railway Ticket/ Bus Tickets. (For refund of Travelling Allowances)

    Note1:-Candidates not in possession of the above documents or those who do not meet the eligibility conditions, should not report to the AFSB, as they will not be accepted for the tests and will be routed back without travelling allowances.

    Note 2:- Candidates are also advised to bring twenty copies of recent passport size colour photographs (with negative) taken in light colored clothes against white background for documentation (if Recommended).

    5. Requisites. You are advised to bring the following items:

    (a) One pair of White Shirt/ T-Shirt, Shorts/ Trouser/ Track Suit/ Salwar kameez, Socks and a pair of white sports shoes.

    (b) Adequate writing material (Pens and lead pencils).

    (c) Clothing, according to season.

    (d) Medium size locks to safeguard your personal luggage.

    6. Traveling Allowance(TA). Traveling Allowance by the shortest route for Sleeper Class Mail/ Express Trains to and fro for the journey from the place of Call Up or departure (whichever is nearer) is admissible. Change of address, if any, must be intimated to the Board well before your arrival. You shall furnish the railway ticket/ bus ticket to the Board, failing which no TA will be paid. For all other modes of travel, TA will be admissible as per the government authorized rules. No TA is admissible, if you have already appeared for the same type of entry at any of the Selection Boards.

    7. Medical Examination. Recommended candidates will be required to proceed to Air Force Central Medical Establishment, New Delhi or Institute of Aerospace Medicine, Bangalore for medical examination for a duration of four to seven days. It may be noted that the Air Force Medical Board/ Services Medical Board is the final authority while deciding the medical fitness for joining the Indian Air Force. You are advised to see the details about Medical Standards on our website, www.careerairforce.nic.in.

    8. Discipline. Your conduct and behaviour during your stay at the Board is expected to be disciplined and orderly. Any act of indiscipline or misconduct will lead to cancellation of your candidature. In all matters pertaining to indiscipline and/ or misconduct, the decision of the President of the Board shall be final and no appeal against his decision will be entertained. Should you try and influence any member of the Board directly or indirectly, your candidature will be cancelled.

    9. General. No facility exists at AFSBs for safe custody of cash and valuables. Therefore, do not bring any valuables or excess money. Candidates are not permitted to carry their mobile phones, laptops or cameras inside the Selection Board premises.

    10 Warning. You should withhold your move, in case you have a relative, who is a member of the Board. Inform us the particulars of the person concerned immediately and await further instructions.

    11. All correspondence with regard to this Call Letter should be addressed to the President of the Board giving full details, including Course/ Batch No/ Code no etc.

    12. Forms.

          (a)  Bonafide certificate for graduate candidates

           (b)  Bonafide certificate for NDA candidates

           (c)  Character certificate

           (d)  Indemnity bond

           (e)  Percentage conversion certificate

    Note. These instructions are general in nature. The instructions contained in the Advertisement for your course and Call Letter will be binding in determining your candidature for test and interview. In all matters, the decision of Air Force authority shall be final.

    Previous AFCAT Question Papers

    AFCAT QUESTION PAPER 01/2011

    SET– 1

    Instructions for candidates TIME ALLOTTED– 2 HRS.

    1. Total No. of Questions–100. Each Question is of three marks.

    2. One mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.

    3. Do not write or mark on the Question Paper.

    4. Question Paper to be returned before leaving the Exam Hall.

     

    Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

    We stand poised precariously and challengingly on the razor’s edge of destiny. We are

    now at the mercy of atom bombs and the like which would destroy us completely if we fail to

    control them wisely. And wisdom in this crisis means sensitiveness to the basic values of life; it

    means a vivid realization that we are literally living in one world where we must either swim

    together or sink together. We cannot afford to tamper with man’s single minded loyalty to peace

    and international understanding. Anyone, who does it is a traitor not only to man’s past and

    present, but also to his future, because he is mortgaging the destiny of unborn generations.

    Q1. From the tone and style of the passage it appears that the writer is-

    (a) a prose writer with a fascination for images and metaphors.

    (b) a humanist with a clear foresight.

    (c) a traitor who wishes to mortgage the destiny of future generations.

    (d) unaware of the global power situation.

    Q2. The best way to escape complete annihilation in an atomic war is to-

    (a) work for international understanding and harmony.

    (b) invent more powerful weapons.

    (c) turn to religion.

    (d) ban nuclear weapons.

    Q3.The phrase ‘razor’s edge of destiny’ means a/an-

    (a) enigma that cuts through the pattern of life like the edge of a razor.

    (b) critical situation that foreordains the future.

    (c) sharp line of division that marks the alternative courses of action in the future.

    (d) destiny with sharp edges.

    Q4.According to the writer, ‘wisdom’ on the razor’s edge of destiny means:

    (a)awareness that we stand poised precariously on the razor’s edge of destiny.

    (b) determination to ban nuclear weapons.

    (c)responsibility to the ‘unborn generations’.

    (d) awareness of the basic values of life.

    Q5. The author is concerned about the threat of nuclear weapons because he feels that-

    (a) a nuclear war will destroy human civilization.

    (b) all countries are interlinked and one cannot escape the consequences of whathappens to another country.

    (c) the world is on the brink of disaster.

    (d) his country is threatened by a nuclear war.

    In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If

     

    there is no mistake, the answer is (d)

    “No error”.

    Q6. A person I met (a)/in the theatre (b)/was the playwright himself. (c)/No error (d).

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    Q7. They walked (a)/besides each other (b)/in silence. (c)/No error (d).

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    Q8. We returned to the guest house (a)/impressed by (b)/what we had seen. (c)/No error (d).

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    Q9. The judge was convinced (a)/that neither (b)/of the five accused was guilty. (c)/No error (d).

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    Q10. The municipality is going (a) /to built a new school (b)/near the park. (c)/ No error (d).

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the

    sentence meaningfully complete.

    Q11. His actions had ________ pain and suffering on thousands of people.

    (a) affected (b) imposed (c) inflicted (d) deplored

    Q12. The Government will ______ all resources to fight poverty.

    (a) collect (b) exploit (c) harness (d) muster

    Q13. The children ______ crackers to celebrate the victory of their team.

    (a) burst (b) fired (c) shot (d) released

    Q14. I am ______ forward to our picnic scheduled in the next month.

    (a) seeing (b) looking (c) planning (d) thinking

    Q15. I hope you must have _____ by now that failures are the stepping stones to success.

    (a) known (b) felt (c) decided (d) realized

    In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in

    capitals.

    Q16. CAUSED

    (a) Brought about (b) Brought forward (c) Brought out (d) Brought over

    Q17. PLACID

    (a) Plain (b) Clear (c) Poor (d) Calm

    Q18. AUDACIOUS

    (a) Obvious (b) Daring (c) Ardent (d) Affluent

    Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given in

    capitals.

    Q19. MONOLOGUE

    (a) Prologue (b) Epilogue (c) Dialogue (d) Catalogue

    Q20. DELETE

    (a) Imbibe (b) Improve (c) Insert (d) Inspire

    Q21. AMBIGUITY

    (a) Certainty (b) Clarity (c) Rationality (d) Laxity

    Choose the correct answer.

    Q22. The First Battle of Panipat was fought between-

    (a) Akbar & Hemu (b) Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi

    (c) Akbar & Rana Sanga (d) Ahmad Shah Abdali & Marathas

    Q23. Fa-hien visited India during the reign of-

    (a) Chandra Gupta Maurya (b) Bindusara (c) Chandra Gupta II (d) Bimbisara

    Q24.Gandhiji’s first experience with Satyagraha came up in- 

    (a) Dandi (b) Champaran (c) Bengal (d) Natal

    Q25. During whose tenure as the viceroy of India were the great Martyrs Bhagat Singh,Sukhdev and Rajguru hanged?

    (a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Irwin (c) Lord Minto (d) Lord Chelmford

    Q26. The winner of the highest number of gold medals in an Olympic game is-

    (a) Mark Spitz (b) Matt Biondi (c) Michael Phelps (d) JennyThompson

    Q27.‘Agha Khan Cup’ is associated with the game of-

    (a) Football (b) Hockey (c) Badminton (d) Cricket

    Q28. Usain Bolt, the 100 meters race world record holder, is from which country?

    (a) Jamaica (b) U.S.A. (c) Canada (d) Nigeria

    Q29. Only two cricket players have taken 10 wickets in an innings. One is Anil Kumble. Theother is-

    (a) Richard Hadlee (b) Muttiah Muralidharan (c) Jim Laker (d) Andy Roberts

    Q30.’Borlaug Award’ is given every year to an Indian scientist for outstanding contribution inthe field of-

    (a) Medicine (b) Space (c) Applied Science (d) Agriculture

    Q31. The highest Indian gallantry award which could be given in peace time is-

    (a) Ashok Chakra (b) Param Vir Chakra

    (c) Kirti Chakra (d) Param Vishisht Seva Medal

    Q32. The most successful Satellite Launch Vehicle of Indian Space Programme to launchcommercial satellites is known as-

    (a) SLV (b) ASLV (c) PSLV (d) GSLV

    Q33. Which one of the following soils is most suitable for cotton cultivation-

    (a) Red soil (b) Black soil (c) Loamy soil (d) Laterite soil

    Q34. The name of indigenously built Light Combat Aircraft is-

    (a) Tejas (b) Chakra (c) Vajra (d) Trishul

    Q35. The boundary between China and India is known as-

    (a) Mc Mohan Line (b) Radcliffe Line (c) Hindenberg Line (d) Line of Control

    Q36. Equinox means two days in a year when day and night are almost equal. If March 21 is an equinox which is the next?

    (a) 09 October (b) 31 August (c) 23 September (d) 03 November

    Q37. UNHCR, an organisation of United Nations, was established to provide/promote-

    (a) Primary Education (b) Health and Culture (c) Relief (d) Protection to refugees

    Q38.Who authored the book ‘Train to Pakistan’? 

    (a) Salman Rushdie (b) Khushwant Singh (c) Mulk Raj Anand (d) Vikram Seth

    Q39. Vitamin necessary to prevent prolonged bleeding is-

    (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin E (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K

    Q40. The famous classical dance form of Andhra Pradesh is-

    (a) Kathakali (b) Kuchipudi (c) Mohini Attam (d) Yakshaagna

    Q41.The term ‘Carbon Credit’ is associated with- 

    (a) Coal reserve of a nation (b) Reduction of Green House Gas emissions

    (c) Fossil Fuel reserve (d) Amount of CO2 an individual emits in a year

    Q42. In a 225 meter long yard 26 trees are planted at equal distance, one tree being at eachend of the yard. What is the distance between two consecutive trees?

    (a) 10 meters (b) 8 meters (c) 12 meters (d) 9 meters

    Q43. A bonus of Rs. 1000 is divided among three employees. Rohit gets twice the amountSachin gets. Sachin gets one fifth of what Gagan gets. How much amount does Gagan get?

    (a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 625 (c) Rs. 750 (d) Rs. 120

    Q44. A boy was asked to multiply a number by 25. Instead, he multiplied the number by 52and got the answer 324 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was-

    (a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 25 (d) 32

    Q45. The average age of 35 students in a class is 16 years. Out of these students theaverage age of 21 students is 14 years. The average age of remaining students is-

    (a) 15 years (b) 17 years (c) 20 years (d) 19 years

    Q46. After replacing an old member by a new member, it was found that the average age offive members of a club is the same as it was 3 years ago. What is the difference between the age of replaced member and new member?

    (a) 2 years (b) 8 years (c) 15 years (d) 25 years

    Q47. The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs. 8000. The average salary ofseven technicians is Rs. 12000 and average salary of others is Rs. 6000. The total number of workers in the workshop are-

    (a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 23

    Q48. In an examination a candidate has to get 35% of total marks to pass. In one paper hegets 62 out of 150 and in the second 35 out of 150. How many marks should he get out of 200 marks in the third paper to pass?

    (a) 61 (b) 68 (c) 70 (d) 78

    Q49. The salary of A & B together amounts to Rs. 2000. A spends 95% of his salary and B 85% of his salary. If their savings are same what is the salary of A?

    (a) Rs. 750 (b) Rs. 1250 (c) Rs. 1500 (d) Rs. 1600

    Q50. Out of the 1000 inhabitants of a town, 60% are male of whom 20% are literate. If, amongst all the inhabitants, 25% are literate, then what percentage of the females of the town are literate?

    (a) 22.5 (b) 32.5 (c) 27.5 (d) 37.5

    Q51. A trader mixes 26 Kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 Kg rice of another variety costing Rs. 36 per Kg. If he sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per Kg his profit will be-

    (a) -7% (b) 5% (c) 8% (d) 10%

    Q52. The difference between the cost price and sale price is Rs. 240. If the profit is 20%, the selling price is-

    (a) Rs. 1200 (b) Rs. 1440 (c) Rs. 1800 (d) Rs. 2440

    Q53. Samant bought a microwave oven and paid 10% less than Maximum Retail Price(MRP).He sold it with 30% profit on his purchase cost. What percentage of profit did he earn on MRP?

    (a) 17% (b) 20% (c) 27% (d) 32%

    Q54. The price of a scooter and a TV are in the ratio of 7:5. If the scooter costs Rs. 8000 more than a TV set, then the price of TV set is-

    (a) Rs. 20000 (b) Rs. 24000 (c) Rs. 32000 (d) Rs. 28000

    Q55. The speed of three cars is in the ratio of 5:4:6. The ratio between the time taken by them to travel the same distance is-

    (a) 5:4:6 (b) 6:4:5 (c) 10:12:15 (d) 12:15:10

    Q56. The ration between two numbers is 3:4. If each number is increased by 6 the ratio becomes 4:5. The difference between the numbers is-

    (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 8

    Q57. Rs. 800 becomes Rs. 956 in 3 years at a certain rate of interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 4% what amount will Rs. 800 become in 3 years?

    (a) Rs. 1020 (b) Rs. 1052 (c) Rs. 1282 (d) Rs. 1080

    Q58. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to gain Rs. 81 as interest, if rate of interest is 4.5% p.a on simple interest?

    (a) 4.5 years (b) 3.5 years (c) 5 years (d) 4 years

    Q59. At what rate of annual simple interest will Rs. 10000 double in 15 years?

    (a) 5.5% (b) 8% (c) 6.75% (d) 7.25%

    Q60. The value of (?) in the equation 365.089 – ? + 89.72 = 302.35 is-

    (a) 152.456 (b) 152.459 (c) 153.456 (d) 153.459

    Q61. A sum of Rs. 312 is divided among 60 boys and some girls in such a way that each boy gets Rs. 3.60 and each girl gets Rs.2.40. The number of girls are-

    (a) 35 (b) 60 (c) 40 (d) 65

    This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question four options are given. There is only one correct answer for each question. Mark the correct answer.

    Q62. INCITE means the same as

    (a) short (b) delay (c) place (d) provoke

    Q63. SUCCUMB means the same as

    (a) aid (b) yield (c) check (d) oppose

    Q64. ANOMALOUS means the same as

    (a) disgraceful (b) formless (c) irregular (d) threatening

    Q65. FORTUITOUS means the same as

    (a) accidental (b) conclusive (c) courageous (d) prosperous

    Q66 .PERMEABLE means the same as

    (a) flexible (b) variable (c) soluble (d) penetrable

    Q67. CONVOY means the same as

    (a) carry (b) flock (c) standard (d) escort

    Q68. CITE means the same as

    (a) illustrate (b) reveal (c) recollect (d) quote

    Q69. VOCATION means the same as

    (a) hobby (b) occupation (c) post (d) designation

     

    Each of the following questions has an underlined/capitalized word. You are to indicatewhich one of the four choices most nearly means the same as the underlined/capitalizedword.

    Q70.The benefits of the plan are likely to be transitory.

    (a) significant (b) obvious (c) temporary (d) cumulative

    Q71.The hikers found several crevices in the rocks.

    (a) cracks (b) minerals (c) canals (d) puddles

    Q72. BOOK is to CHAPTER as BUILDING is to

    (a) ELEVATOR (b) LOBBY (c) ROOF (d) STOREY

    Q73.CARROT is to VEGETABLE as

    (a) DOGWOOD is to OAK (b) FOOT is to PAW

    (c) PEPPER is to SPICE (d) SHEEP is to LAMB

    Q74.CONCAVE is to CONVEX as

    (a) CAVITY is to MOUND (b) HILL is to HOLE

    (c) OVAL is to OBLONG (d) ROUND is to POINTED

    Q75. GOWN is to GARMENT as GASOLINE is to

    (a) COOLANT (b) FUEL (c) OIL (d) LUBRICANT

    Q76. HYPER- is to HYPO- as

    (a) DIASTOLIC is to SYSTOLIC (b) OVER is to UNDER

    (c) SMALL is to LARGE (d) STALE is to FRESH

    Q77.IMMIGRATION is to EMIGRATION as

    (a) ARRIVAL is to DEPARTURE (b) FLIGHT is to VOYAGE

    (c) LEGAL is to ILLEGAL (d) MIGRATION is to TRAVEL

    Q78. OCTAGON is to SQUARE as HEXAGON is to

    (a) POLYGON (b) PYRAMID (c) RECTANGLE (d) TRIANGLE

    Q79. TELL is to TOLD as

    (a) RIDE is to RODE (b) SINK is to SANK

    (c) WEAVE is to WOVE (d) WEEP is to WEPT

    Q80. SHEEP is to LAMB as HORSE is to

    (a) COLT (b) DOE (c) FAWN (d) MARE

    Q81. IGNORE is to OVERLOOK as

    (a) AGREE is to CONSENT (b) CLIMB is to WALK

    (c) DULL is to SHARPEN (d) LEARN is to REMEMBER

    Q82. FREQUENTLY is to SELDOM as

    (a) ALWAYS is to NEVER (b) EVERYBODY is to EVERYONE

    (c) GENERALLY is to USUALLY (d) OCCASIONALLY is to CONSTANTLY

    some question are from non verbal reasoning, they are avaliable in institute. 

    SET – 2

    Instructions for candidates
     TIME ALLOTTED: 2 Hrs 1.
     Total No. of Questions-100. 
    Each Question is of three marks.
     2. One mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. 
    3. Do not write or mark on the Question Paper. 
    4. Question Paper to be returned before leaving the Exam Hall.

     Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below: Pablo Picasso showed his truly exceptional talent from a very young age. His first word was lapiz (Spanish for pencil) and he learnt to draw before he could talk. He was the only son in the family and very good-looking, so he was thoroughly spoilt. He hated school and often refused to go unless his doting parents allowed him to take one of his father’s pet pigeons with him. Apart from pigeons, his great love was art and when in 1891 his father, who was an amateur artist, got a job as a drawing teacher at a college, Pablo went with him to the college. He often watched his father paint and sometimes was allowed to help. One evening his father was painting a picture of their pigeons when he had to leave the room. He returned to find that Pablo had completed the picture, and it was so amazingly beautiful and lifelike that he gave his son his own palette and brushes and never painted again. Pablo was just thirteen.
    Q1. As a boy Pablo Picasso was
    (a) Ordinary looking but talented. (b) Handsome and talented. (c) Handsome and studious. (d) Handsome and hardworking.Q2. He was spoilt mostly because he was
    (a) A smart boy. (b) Loved by one and all. (c) The only son in the family. (d) Always surrounded by notorious boys.Q3. Picasso went to school only when
    (a) His friends accompanied him. (b) His father went with him. (c) He was allowed to paint at school. (d) He was allowed to carry a pet with him.Q4. When his father painted in the college, Pablo
    (a) Occasionally helped him. (b) Rarely helped him. (c) Always helped him. (d) Invariably helped him.Q5. Pablo’s father gave up painting because he
    (a) Did not like the job. (b) Retired from the college. (c) Was impressed by his son’s talent. (d) Lost interest in painting.

     In each of the following questions, find out which part has an error. 
    Q6. The boss was irritated(a)/ by him neglecting (b)/ the duties and (c) not listening to his advice (d)
    . (a) (b) (c) (d)Q7. Each of the three (a)/ beggars were (b)/ asking for more (c)/ food to eat (d).
    (a) (b) (c) (d) Q8. My brother sent (a)/two pairs (b)/ of shoe (c)/ from America (d).
    (a) (b) (c) (d) Q9. The young boy said (a)/that he (b)/neither liked me (c)/nor my wife (d).
    (a) (b) (c) (d) Q10. He was (a) /congratulated for (b)/his success in (c)/ the 100 m race (d).
    (a) (b) (c) (d)Pick up the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
    
     Q11. Sanjay was______________ with divine vision to see the great battle.
    (a) Demure (b) Authorized (c) Endowed (d) UtteredQ12. There was so much__________ material in the essay that it was difficult to get the author’s message.
    (a) Variegated (b) Superficial (c) Extraneous (d) ExemplaryQ13. The world is so constructed that if you wish to enjoy its pleasures, you must also______ its pains.
    (a) Deny (b) Neglect (c) Ignore (d) EndureQ14. Indian press did not give ____________ to the British publicity.
    (a) Credence (b) Scion (c) Augury (d) OpportunityQ15. Travellers ____________their reservations well in advance if they want to travel during the Diwali holidays.
    (a) has better to get (b) had better get (c) had to get better (d) had better got In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals.
    
     Q16. EMANCIPATE
    (a) Set free (b) Exist (c) Correct morally (d) RestrainQ17. DECEIT
    (a) Simplicity (b) Gentility (c) Sincerity (d) DishonestyQ18. ADMONITION
    (a) Thrash (b) Hindrance (c) Warning (d) Exhort In each of the following choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.
    
    Q19. VOCIFEROUS
    (a) Laudable (b) Quiet (c) Dangerous (d) PowerfulQ20. IMPLICATE
    (a) Involve (b) Exonerate (c) Corrupt (d) Accuse Choose the correct answer Q21. The person who is regarded as the greatest law giver of ancient India is
    (a) Panini (b) Kautilya (c) Manu (d) Patanjali

     Q22. The immortal fame of Ashoka largely rests upon
    (a) His conversion to Buddhism and its propagation. (b) His policy for the welfare of his subjects. (c) His work in the sphere of politics and moral teaching. (d) His extensive conquests.Q23. Gandhiji started Dandi March
    (a) To demonstrate against the British Empire. (b) To break the salt law. (c) To boycott foreign goods. (d) None of the above. Q24. The first war of Indian Independence began on 10 May 1857 at
    (a) Meerut (b) Jhansi (c) Barrackpore (d) Delhi Q25. The sun rises in Arunachal Pradesh two hours before it does in Dwaraka in Gujarat. This is because the former is
    (a) Higher in elevation than Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East. (b) Situated further North than Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East. (c) Situated further East (about 30o Longitude) than Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East. (d) Situated about 300 East of Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East.Q26. Srinagar is situated on the banks of the river
    (a) Ravi (b) Sutlej (c) Jhelum (d) Chenab Q27. The areas in India that receive approximately an average of more than 200 cms of rainfall annually are
    (a) Meghalaya, Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh. (b) Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra. (c) Meghalaya, Assam, Rajasthan, Jammu & Kashmir. (d) Meghalaya, Delhi, Punjab, Rajasthan.Q28. Isotherms are imaginary lines drawn on a map which connect places of equal
    (a) Atmospheric pressure (b) Humidity (c) Rainfall (d) Temperature Q29. Jim Corbett National Park is situated in which state?
    (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) UttaranchalQ30. Which one of the following statement regarding the sun is correct?
    (a) The sun is composed mainly of hydrogen. (b) Its energy is generated by nuclear collision in its interior. (c) It is calculated that the sun consumes about a trillion pounds of hydrogen every second. (d) All of the above. Q31. Supersonic speed is speed greater than the speed of sound (in air at sea level) that is to say around______ miles/hour.
    (a) 760 (b) 860 (c) 960 (d) 1060Q32. Yoga sutra was written by
    (a) Vatsyayana (b) Pathanjali (c) Bhartrihari (d) Maharshi MaheshQ33. The National Institute of Oceanography is located at
    (a) Trivandrum (b) Panaji (c) Cochin (d) MangaloreQ34. An aeroplane rises because
    (a) Of upward reaction of air. (b) The density of air above the plane is less than below it. (c) The pressure above its wings is less than the pressure below them. (d) Its nose points upwards.Q35. Rocks formed on the solidification of molten matter are called
    (a) Metamorphic rocks (b) Sedimentary rocks (c) Volcanic rocks (d) Igneous rocksQ36. The pioneer of Atomic energy in India is
    (a) Homi J Bhabha (b) Vikram Sarabhai (c) C.V. Raman (d) C.K. NaiduQ37. Which one of the following statements regarding FIFA World Cup 2010 is not correct?
    (a) South Africa became the first host nation to fail to qualify for the tournament’s second round. (b) The tournament was the culmination of a qualification process that began in August 2007. (c) This is the first time that the tournament was hosted by an African nation. (d) Zakumi, the official mascot for the FIFA World Cup, 2010 is an African bush elephant.Q38. The first Indian to win the World Amateur Snooker Championship is
    (a) Om Agarwal (b) Geet Sethi (c) Michael Ferreira (d) Wilson JonesQ39. The first person to win the Arjuna award for badminton is
    (a) Pullela Gopichand (b) Prakash Padukone (c) Nandu Natekar (d) Farook EngineerQ40. The sport which requires the largest field is
    (a) Football (b) Cricket (c) Hockey (d) Polo Find the odd one out. 
    Q41. (a) Advice (b) Counsel (c) Direct (d) Suggest